Answer:
The probability that exactly two have flaws is P (x=2) = 0.2376
Step-by-step explanation:
Here
Success= p= 0.15
Failure = q= 0.85
total number= n= 8
Number chosen = x= 2
Applying the binomial distribution
P (x=x) = nCx p^x(q)^n-x
P (x=2) = 8C2 0.15 ²(0.85)^8
P (x=2) = 0.2376
The success is chosen about which we want to find the probability. Here we want to find the probability that exactly two have flaws so success would be having flaws therefore p = 0.15
Answer:
It is -1
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Yes . Divide by 10 for 10/20 to get 1/2.
10/10= 1
20/10= 2
10/20= 1/2
Answer:
ok wait which symbol? this (<)?
well it should stay the same since -100 is greater than the 11b-12
LHS=RHS
11b÷11b b must cancell b also do the same on -12. -12÷11 will give u a lesser value compared to -100
prove me wrong
Answer:yk i’m looking for the answer too, i can’t find it
Step-by-step explanation: