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3 years ago

2: 15 multiplied by 2

Mathematics

2 answers:

Ratling [72]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

2 : 15 x 2 = 4 : 30

Step-by-step explanation:

You get the ratio 4:30 by multiplying both numbers of the original ratio by 2.

2x2= 4

2x15=30

So in conclusion, the answer to the problem is 4 : 30.

zmey [24]3 years ago

4 0

2. btw you can use mathpapa.com and it helps a lot.

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Find the area of the figure shown below and choose the appropriate result.

Alisiya [41]

Answer:

6cm

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

Approximately 5% of calculators coming out of the production lines have a defect. Fifty calculators are randomly selected from t

baherus [9]

Answer:

0.2611 = 26.11% probability that exactly 2 calculators are defective.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each calculator, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of a calculator being defective is independent of any other calculator, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

5% of calculators coming out of the production lines have a defect.

This means that $p = 0.05$

Fifty calculators are randomly selected from the production line and tested for defects.

This means that $n = 50$

What is the probability that exactly 2 calculators are defective?

This is P(X = 2). So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{50,2}.(0.05)^{2}.(0.95)^{48} = 0.2611$

0.2611 = 26.11% probability that exactly 2 calculators are defective.

3 0

3 years ago

Solve for (4x+6)+(-x+2) please i need help

postnew [5]

Answer:

3x - 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

( 4x + 6 ) + ( - x + 2 )

Step 2:

4x - 6 + - x - 2

Step 3:

3x - 6 - 2

Answer:

3x - 8

Hope This Helps :)

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

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ivann1987 [24]

This probability is the same as 1-(two different suited cards). Your first card can be any of the 52 cards. Your second card must be any of the 39 different suited remaining 51 cards. So the answer is 1 - (52/52)(39-51). Note: I assumed there was no replacement.

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3 years ago

Please help with this question.

Alchen [17]

Answer:

-9

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago