Answer:
divide numerator by the denominator of the fraction.Mean you can divide it
Step-by-step explanation:
I am not sure my answer correct or not,hope you know it.
Answer:
The amount the school pays is £32.40
Step-by-step explanation:
The cost of each pen = 15 pence
The cost of each ruler = 20 pence
The number of pens bought by the school = 150
The number of rulers bought by the school = 90
The cost reduction (discount) on the items bought = 1/5
Therefore, we have;
The total cost of the pens bought by the school = 150 × 15 = 2250 = £22.50
The total cost of the rulers bought by the school = 90 × 20 = 1800 = £18.00
The total cost of the writing materials (rulers and pens) bought by the school = £22.50 + £18.00 = £40.50
The discount = 1/5 total cost reduction = 1/5×£40.50 = $8.10
The amount the school pays = The total cost of the writing materials - The discount
The amount the school pays = £40.50 - $8.10 = £32.40
The amount the school pays = £32.40.
4,000,000,000 + 700,000,000 + 0 + 0 + 900,000 + 30,000 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2
Answer:
Option (2)
Step-by-step explanation:
Option (1)
In the interval [-1, 1] Or -1 ≤ x ≤ 1, value of the function will be represented by the y-values.
Since, the graph is below x-axis in the interval -1 ≤ x ≤ 0.5, function will be negative.
And in the interval 0.5 ≤ x ≤ 1, graph is above the x-axis, function will be positive.
Option (2)
In this option, graph is below the x-axis in the interval [-1, 1].
Therefore, the given graph is negative in this interval.
Option (3)
In this graph, function is negative and positive both in the interval -1 ≤ x ≤ 1.
Option (4)
In this graph function is completely above the x-axis in the interval -1 ≤ x ≤ 1.
So this function is positive in the interval [-1, 1].
Therefore, Option (2) will be the answer.
