Answer:
$2,000
Explanation:
Data provided in the question
Number of shares purchased = 100 shares
Price of common stock = $25
Given percentage = 50%
Based on the above information, there is no borrowing taken place in a margin account because there is a minimum requirement to maintain $2,000 in equity and when the purchase is made lower than $2,000 so it is important to pay the amount in full and the deposits are important when it is made more than $2,000 in the case when the trade is more than $4,000
Answer:
$7,250
Explanation:
You can deduct medical expenses <u>that exceed</u> 7.5% of your AGI (changes, but is currently at this level).
170,000 x .075 = 12,750
20,000 - 12,750 = $7,250
I hope this helps!
-TheBusinessMan
Sales grow before any new fixed assets are needed is $156,480.
Fixed assets , additionally known as lengthy-lived assets or property, plant, and equipment, are a time period utilized in accounting for belongings and belongings that cannot without difficulty be converted into cash. fixed properties are one of a kind from modern assets, along with coins or bank accounts, due to the fact the latter is liquid belongings.
currently operating = 94 percent
current sales = $740,000
Full capacity sales = current sales/ Current capacity utilisation
= 500000/0.94
= $531,914.89
Percentage of fixed assets to full Capacity Sales = Fixed Assets / full Capacity Sales
= 400000/531914.89
= 0.752
Total Fixed assets Needed for New Sales = 74000*0.752
= 556480
Additional Fixed Assets needed = 556480 - 400000
= $156,480 answer.
Learn more about fixed assets here:-brainly.com/question/25746199
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Solution:
The reporting unit's book value of $250 million meets the market value of $220 million.
Requirement 1:
Determination of implied fair value of goodwill:
Fair value of Center point, Inc. $220 million
Fair value of Center point’s net assets (excluding goodwill) 200 million
Implied fair value of goodwill $ 20 million
Measurement of impairment loss:
Book value of goodwill $62 million
Implied fair value of goodwill 20 million
Impairment loss $42 million
Requirement 2: If the operating unit's market valuation of 270 million dollars surpasses 250 million dollars, there is no depreciation risk.
Answer:
First option will be recommended.
Explanation:
To determine which option to be taken, we calculate the net present value each option generates. The option generating higher NPV should be recommended.
- Net present value of first option = Lump sum receipt = $150,000.
- Net present value of second option will be found by discounting cash flows at investing rate 12% and calculated as followed:
+ Present value of 20 equal annual payment of $14,000 + Present value of $60,000 paid in 20 years = (14,000/12%) x [ 1 - 1.12^(-20)] + 60,000/1.12^20 = $110,792.
As net present value of the first option is higher than the second option, first option will be recommended.
