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3 years ago

14

How much was firm xyz's dividends per share if the firm paid $3.20 million in dividends and there were 4 million shares outstand

ing?

1 answer:

USPshnik [31]3 years ago

7 0

Dividends per share by definition is how much did each share of the company receive in dividends.

You take the total dividend paid and divide by the number of outstanding shares

3.20 million / 4 million = dividends per share.

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For each item listed below, indicate the effect on net income in arriving at cash flows from operations by choosing one of the f

Liono4ka [1.6K]

1 2 5 são números par thank from e escreva-se

6 0

3 years ago

When Padgett Properties LLC was formed, Nova contributed land (value of $358,500 and basis of $89,625) and $179,250 cash, and Os

lawyer [7]

Answer:Amount of Nova and Oscar's gain=$492,937.50

Explanation:

a)According to Land recorded for § 704(b) book capital account purposes, Land is recorded at fair market value. With this, the Padgett properties should record the land at $358,500

b)From the question, it is given that the basis of land is $89,625. Therefore, the Padgett Properties LLC's tax basis in the land is $89,625.

c)Amount of Nova and Oscar's gain.

Fair market value of Land $358,500

Basis of land $89,625

total $ 448,125

but Gain = Selling price of land - Fair value of Land x interest in partnership profits and capital

= $537,750 - ($358,500+$89,625 )

=($537,750 - $448,125 ) x 50% =$44,812.50

Total gain $448,125 + $44,812.50 =$492,937.50

4 0

3 years ago

Cairns owns 80 percent of the voting stock of Hamilton, Inc. The parent’s interest was acquired several years ago on the date th

tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

hello your question has a missing journal entry table attached below is the entry journal table completely filled

Explanation:

Amount of bonds acquired = 40% of original bond

i) Bonds payable = 40% * 1,300,000

= $520000

purchase price of bonds = $520000 * 96% ( FACE VALUE )

= $499200

hence the annual amortization

(bonds payable - purchase price of bonds ) / 10 years - 2 years

(520000 - 499200 ) / 8 = $20800/8 = $2600

ii) premium on bonds payable

$20800 - $2600 = $18200

cash amount = $520000 * 8% = $41600

intra entity expense and income table is attached below

from the table

iii) intra-entity interest expense = $39000 and the

iv) intra-entity interest income = $44200

v) investment in bonds

purchase price of bonds + annual amortization

= $499200 + $2600 = $501800

the book value on bonds as at 1st January 2011

=$1300000 * 105% = $1365000

Premium on bonds as at January 1st 2011

= $1365000 - $1300000 = $65000

amortization of premium as at January 1st 2011

=( ($65000) / 10 years ) * 2 years

= $13000

hence the controlling interest in bonds payable = $540800

vi) gains on retirement bonds

= $540800 - $499200 = $41600

attached below is the journal entry on 31st December 2013

5 0

3 years ago

The following data relating to direct materials cost for October of the current year are taken from the records of Good Clean Fu

Dima020 [189]

Answer:

standard price= $5

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Quantity of direct materials used 3,000 lbs. Actual unit price of direct materials $5.50 per lb. Units of finished product manufactured 1,400 units Standard direct materials per unit of finished product 2 lbs.Direct materials quantity variance-unfavorable $1,000Direct materials price variance-unfavorable $1,500.

Direct material price variance= (standard price - actual price)*actual quantity

-1,500= (SP - 5.5)*3,000

15,000=3,000SP

5= standard price

Direct material quantity variance= (standard quantity - actual quantity)*standard price

Direct material quantity variance= (1400*2 - 3,000)*5

Direct material quantity variance= 1,000 unfavorable

5 0

3 years ago

Cal has a choice between two gambles. The first gamble offers a 50 percent chance of winning $20 and a 50 percent chance of losi

Ber [7]

Answer:

The second gamble has the higher expected value. EV = 4

Explanation:

In betting, expected value can be defined as (Amount won per bet * probability of winning) – (Amount lost per bet * probability of losing)

For the first gamble:

$EV=(0.5*20) - (0.5*20) = 0$

For the second gamble:

$EV= (0.2*100) - (0.8*20) = 4$

This means that Cal is expected to earn $4 for each $20 waged on the second gamble while he is expected to break even in the first gamble.

Therefore, the second gamble has the higher expected value.

4 0

3 years ago