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Darina [25.2K]
3 years ago
7

The wave function of a particle in a one-dimensional box of width L is Ψ(x) = Asin(πx/L). If we know the particle must be somewh

ere in the box, what must be the value of A? Express your answer in terms of L.

Physics
1 answer:
Harlamova29_29 [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: A = square root (2/L)

Explanation: find the attached file for explanation

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A mass is oscillating with amplitude A at the end of a spring.
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

A) x=\pm \frac{A}{2\sqrt{2}}

The total energy of the system is equal to the maximum elastic potential energy, that is achieved when the displacement is equal to the amplitude (x=A):

E=\frac{1}{2}kA^2 (1)

where k is the spring constant.

The total energy, which is conserved, at any other point of the motion is the sum of elastic potential energy and kinetic energy:

E=U+K=\frac{1}{2}kx^2+\frac{1}{2}mv^2 (2)

where x is the displacement, m the mass, and v the speed.

We want to know the displacement x at which the elastic potential energy is 1/3 of the kinetic energy:

U=\frac{1}{3}K

Using (2) we can rewrite this as

U=\frac{1}{3}(E-U)=\frac{1}{3}E-\frac{1}{3}U\\U=\frac{E}{4}

And using (1), we find

U=\frac{E}{4}=\frac{\frac{1}{2}kA^2}{4}=\frac{1}{8}kA^2

Substituting U=\frac{1}{2}kx^2 into the last equation, we find the value of x:

\frac{1}{2}kx^2=\frac{1}{8}kA^2\\x=\pm \frac{A}{2\sqrt{2}}

B) x=\pm \frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}A

In this case, the kinetic energy is 1/10 of the total energy:

K=\frac{1}{10}E

Since we have

K=E-U

we can write

E-U=\frac{1}{10}E\\U=\frac{9}{10}E

And so we find:

\frac{1}{2}kx^2 = \frac{9}{10}(\frac{1}{2}kA^2)=\frac{9}{20}kA^2\\x^2 = \frac{9}{10}A^2\\x=\pm \frac{3}{\sqrt{10}}A

3 0
3 years ago
A major advantage of case studies is ________.
Ymorist [56]
You get a lot of detailed information. hope this helped :)
4 0
3 years ago
What is the acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of itsthree engines can provide 100,000 n of force?
sergey [27]

The acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of its three engines can provide 100,000N of force is 0.167m/s².

<h3>How to calculate acceleration?</h3>

The acceleration of a freight train can be calculated using the following formula:

Force = mass × acceleration

According to this question, a 600,000kg freight train can produce 100,000N of force. The acceleration is as follows:

100,000 = 600,000 × a

100,000 = 600,000a

a = 0.167m/s²

Therefore, the acceleration of a 600,000 kg freight train, if each of its three engines can provide 100,000N of force is 0.167m/s².

Learn more about acceleration at: brainly.com/question/12550364

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
If you placed a dot on a world map to represent the location of every earthquake in the last 100 years, where would you see eart
Vedmedyk [2.9K]
If we are to place dots to teh places that have been struck by an earthquake these past 100 years, the dots would be concentrated in the east and southeast Asia region. This is because of the presence of the Pacific ring of fire. This is a major area in the Pacific Ocean where most of the earthquakes are likely to occur. 
6 0
3 years ago
How does the particle model indicate positive acceleration and how does it indicate negative acceleration? An example of particl
MrMuchimi

Answer:

Explanation:

The diagram has a fairly simple explanation. In the top diagram, the space between the particle is increasing. That means that acceleration is increasing. The bottom diagram shows just the opposite. The particle starts off making large "distances" between where the particle is recorded and then the distances between recordings lessens and the particle is slowing down.

Rule: the greater the "distance" between dot positions, the greater the acceleration, because the speed is large.

Top diagram: increasing distance between dots = larger speed. The distance becomes greater as the particle moves to the right.

Bottom diagram: starts off large and decreases as we move from left to right  = - acceleration.  

5 0
3 years ago
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