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xenn [34]
2 years ago
15

What is 0.00001 meters in nanometers

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ivahew [28]2 years ago
7 0
The answer is 10000 nanometers because 1 Nanometer = 0.000000001 Meters
Luden [163]2 years ago
5 0
The answer is 10000 because you need to flip it


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The line with equation −a+3b=0 coincides with the terminal side of an angle θ in standard position and sinθ<0 .
Anna11 [10]
If a is the variable of the horizontal axis, then you can solve for b to get the equation of the line in slope-intercept form in the a,b plane:

-a+3b=0\implies b=\dfrac a3

i.e. a line with slope \dfrac13 through the origin, which means it is contained in the first and third quadrants. Since the terminal side of \theta has a negative sine, the angle must lie in the third quadrant.

Because the slope of the line is \dfrac13, you can choose any length along the line to make up the hypotenuse of a right triangle with reference angle \theta. Any such right triangle will have \tan\theta=\dfrac13, regardless of whether the angle is the first or third quadrant. But since \theta is known to lie in the third quadrant, and so \sin\theta and \cos\theta are both negative, you have

\tan\theta=\dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}=\dfrac13\implies \dfrac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}=\dfrac{-1}{-3}\implies \cos\theta=-3
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The lengths of the legs of a right triangle are 7 in. and 2 in.
Paha777 [63]
The hypotenuse is approximately 6.2
5 0
2 years ago
Please, help me on this question, guys! I know the answer for (a) so I'll write down, too. For (b) I tried "$89,000 because that
Alexeev081 [22]
Let x be a random variable representing the price of a Congo-imported black diamond. Let the higher price be p. Then,
P(x < p) = P(x < (p - mean)/sd) = P(x < (p - 60,430)/21,958.08) = P(z < 2)
Therefore,
(p - 60,430)/21,958.08 = 2
p - 60,430 = 2 x 21,958.08 = 43,916.16
p = 34,916.16 + 60,430 = 104.346.16

Therefore, The required price is $104,346.16
7 0
3 years ago
Question 15
Hoochie [10]

Answer:

10% chance or 1/10

Step-by-step explanation:

5 out of the 100 cards are free lunches simplified it would be

1/10

8 0
3 years ago
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5. Arrival problems usually follow a Poisson distribution, but in this case the time between arrivals of customers at a bank dur
Finger [1]

Answer:

0.5 or 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

For any given value of 'x' representing the time between arrivals of two customers. If 0 < x <120, then the cumulative distribution function is:

\frac{x-0}{120-0}=\frac{x}{120}

Therefore, the probability that the time between the arrivals of two customers will be more than 60 seconds is determined by:

P(X>60) = 1 -\frac{60}{120}\\P(X>60) = 0.5

The probability is 0.5 or 50%.

5 0
2 years ago
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