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AveGali [126]
3 years ago
6

What is thr inverse of f(x) if the function is x=-4,-2,0,2,4 f(x)=-2,-1,0,1,2

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lorico [155]3 years ago
7 0
For a function, if it has an inverse function, keep in mind that, the "domain of the original, is the range of the inverse, and the range of the original, is the domain of the inverse", what the dickens does that mean?

well, it means the values for "x" and f(x), on the inverse, are the same values, but swapped up, therefore

\bf \stackrel{original~function}{\begin{array}{ccll}
x&f(x)\\
\text{\textemdash\textemdash\textemdash}&\text{\textemdash\textemdash\textemdash}\\
-4&-2\\
-2&-1\\
0&0\\
2&1\\
4&2
\end{array}}\qquad \qquad \qquad 
\stackrel{inverse~function}{\begin{array}{ccll}
x&f(x)\\
\text{\textemdash\textemdash\textemdash}&\text{\textemdash\textemdash\textemdash}\\
-2&-4\\
-1&-2\\
0&0\\
1&2\\
2&4
\end{array}}
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<h3>What is Pythagoras theorem? </h3>

According to the Pythagoras theorem, the square of the hypotenuse is the sum of the square of the opposite sides.

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Please find attached the required diagram. To learn more about Pythagoras theorem, please check: brainly.com/question/14580675

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