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3 years ago

How do you write 3/5 as a percentage?

2 answers:

7 0

To find out, you need to turn the denominator to 100, so multiply the top and bottom of 3/5 by 20.

60/100

Therefore 3/5 as a percentage is 60%

Fittoniya [83]3 years ago

3 0

60% Thats all just writing so i can post

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Guys,whats 1 2/3 times 4?

Lemur [1.5K]

6 and 2/3 that is the answer

8 0

3 years ago

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4,400 X 400 = ( blank hundreds) X ( blank hundreds) = 176 hundreds, thousands, hundrenths, tenths, tens, ones, thousands, or tho

kiruha [24]

Hello There!

(44 hundreds) x (4 hundreds) = 176 tens thousands.

Hope This Helps You!
Good Luck :)

- Hannah ❤

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3 years ago

P(x) = 1 – 2x2 – 3x3 + 4x has what order?

nata0808 [166]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

assuming you forgot you ^ mark after x x^3 would be the highest x order here making it the order for the equation.

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2 years ago

Sara has 20 sweets. She has 12 liquorice sweets, 5 mint sweets and 3 humbugs. Sarah is going to take, at random, two sweets Work

Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

111 / 190

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us first compute the probability of picking 2 of each sweet. Take liquorice as the first example. There are 12 / 20 liquorice now, but after picking 1 there will be 11 / 19 left. Thus the probability of getting two liquorice is demonstrated below;

$12 / 20 * 11 / 19 = \frac{33}{95},\\Probability of Drawing 2 Liquorice = \frac{33}{95}$

Apply this same concept to each of the other sweets;

$5 / 20 * 4 / 19 = \frac{1}{19},\\Probability of Drawing 2 Mint Sweets = 1 / 19\\\\3 / 20 * 2 / 19 = \frac{3}{190},\\Probability of Drawing 2 Humbugs = 3 / 190$

Now add these probabilities together to work out the probability of drawing 2 of the same sweets, and subtract this from 1 to get the probability of not drawing 2 of the same sweets;

$33 / 95 + 1 / 19 + 3 / 190 = \frac{79}{190},\\1 - \frac{79}{190} = \frac{111}{190}\\\\$

The probability that the two sweets will not be the same type of sweet =

111 / 190

3 0

3 years ago

Use algebraic methods to prove that the given function has an x-intercept that is equal to its y-intercept. In your final answer

Llana [10]

Given the function, y = x/( x^2 – 1)

Add x and subtract x from (x^2 – 1) to make it a complete square

y = x/(x^2 + x – x – 1)

y = x/[x(x + 1) – 1(x + 1)]

y = x/[(x – 1)(x + 1)]

In order to find the y -intercept, we set x = 0

When x = 0

y = 0/[(0 – 1)(0 + 1)]

y = 0.

Therefore, the y-intercept is zero.

In order to find the x -intercept, we set y = 0

When y = 0

0 = x/[(x – 1)(x + 1)]

The only way the product of a division will be zero is if the numerator is zero

So, if x/[(x – 1)(x + 1)] = 0

x = 0

Therefore, the x-intercept is also zero.

Since both x- intercept and y- intercept equal zero,

Then, the given function has an x-intercept that is equal to its y-intercept

5 0

3 years ago

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