Here is what I got for the first one. MAD=
1/(N)*(|x1-xm|+|x2-xm|+..+|xN-xm|)
=1/5(|85-83|+|83-83|+|87-83|+|90-83|+|70-83|)
=1/5(2+0+4+7+13))
=5.2
And for the second one I got, MAD=
1/(N)*(|x1-xm|+|x2-xm|+..+|xN-xm|)
=1/5(|75-76|+|74-76|+|68-76|+|83-76|+|80-76|)
=1/5(1+2+8+7+4))
=4.4
Answer: 10%
Step-by-step explanation:
given data:
no of cards left = 15.
no of diamonds left = 5.
probability of drawing a diamond = 5/15.
probability that the next two cards drawn to anika are diamonds without replacements.
= 5/15 * 4/14
= 2/21
= 0.0952 * 100
the probability that the two cards dealt to Anika would be diamond is 9.52% ~ 10%
Answer:
A ray
Step-by-step explanation:
A ray is a line segment that has only one endpoint. A ray is infinite in one direction. That means that it goes on forever in one direction.
I'm sorry I'm too lazy to read all of that. However, I did get the main point. The river was going at 3 mph. Since he wanted to travel 10 miles upstream and downstream, you would have to subtract 20 by 3. This would mean he was going at a speed of 17 mph.
