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Westkost [7]
3 years ago
10

Is 30:12 and 40:16 equivalent

Mathematics
1 answer:
iVinArrow [24]3 years ago
6 0
Translate to fraction
are 30/12 and 40/16 equivilent?

if a/b=c/d then a/b times d/c=1
basically if ad=bc then they are equivilent

30/12 ad 40/16 equvilient?
30/12 times 16/40=1?
480/480=1?
1=1?
yes
they are equivilent
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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The function g(x)=6(3)^{x} represents a reflection of f(x)=6(\frac{1}{3})^{x} across the y-axis ⇒ 3rd answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us revise the reflection across the axes

  • If the function f(x) reflected across the x-axis, then its image is g(x) = - f(x)
  • If the function f(x) reflected across the y-axis, then its image is g(x) = f(-x)

∵ f(x)=6(\frac{1}{3})^{x}

∵ g(x) is the image of f(x) after reflection across the y-axis

- From the rule above reflection across the y-axis changes the sign of x

∴ g(x)=6(\frac{1}{3})^{-x}

∵ (a)^{-n}=(\frac{1}{a})^{n}

∵ (\frac{1}{a})^{-n}=(a)^{n}

∴ (\frac{1}{3})^{-x}=(3)^{x}

∴ g(x)=6(3)^{x}

The function g(x)=6(3)^{x} represents a reflection of f(x)=6(\frac{1}{3})^{x} across the y-axis

Learn more:

You can learn more about reflection in brainly.com/question/5017530

#LearnwithBrainly

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