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nignag [31]
3 years ago
5

During 2018, Montoya (age 15) received $2,200 from a corporate bond. He also received $600 from a savings account established fo

r him by his parents. Montoya lives with his parents and he is their dependent. What is Montoya’s taxable income?
A. $2,800B. $2,200C. $1,750D. $0
Business
1 answer:
Ann [662]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is option (C) $ 1,750

Explanation:

Given data:

Amount received from corporate bond = $ 2,200

Amount received from a savings account = $ 600

Thus, the total income = $ 2,200 + $ 600

or

The total income = $ 2800

Now,

the standard deduction for the person claimed as dependent's on another's tax return = $ 1,050

Hence, the total taxable income = Total income - standard deduction

or

the total taxable income = $ 2,800 - $ 1,050 = $ 1,750

Hence, the correct answer is option (C) $ 1,750

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Question 10 of 36
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

To answer the question, we look at an extreme scenario of 0% interest rate and see the minimum repayment Jade will make on the loan taken

Therefore,

Interest Rate = 0%

This means that the loan to be paid will be calculated as follows

Monthly payments x 12 Months x 14 Years

= $195 x 12 months x 14 years = $32, 760

The meaning of this outcome is that the lower the interest rate to be paid, the higher the size of the loan, because at 2.9% the loan= $26,898.98 and at 0% rate the loan= $32, 760.

The conclusion therefore is a 2.7% interest rate which is lower than 2.9% but not as low as the extreme 0% will cause the loan amount to be higher than $26,898.98. This affirms option A.

Options B and C are wrong because 2.5% and 2.3% are lower than 2.9%, therefore, the loan amount will be higher. Option D is also wrong because a 3.1% interest rate is higher than 2.9%, therefore, the amount should be lower not higher than $26,898.98

7 0
2 years ago
The federal funds rate is the interest rate that banks charge one another for short-term (typically overnight) loans. When the F
WARRIOR [948]

Answer: decreases

                                                                         

Explanation: The following practice is done by the central bank in the situation of inflation when there is an excess supply of money in the economy.

The central bank tries to decrease the funds by selling the govt bonds to the banks. This results in decrease in funds from banks as they have to buy such bonds from their respective funds.

6 0
2 years ago
Instructions on how to creae and maintained planned maintenance system schedules using sked appendix
gogolik [260]
  • Cycle, quarterly, and weekly calendars are the several types of PMS schedules.
  • The Cycle PMS Schedule shows the Maintenance Requirements (MRs) that are anticipated to be completed over an extended period of time within the ship's maintenance life cycle.
  • The pound sign symbol ("#") denotes required related maintenance checks that must be conducted within the quarter.
  • The mark used to denote the end of an MR is the letter "X."
  • A circled "O" on a Sked requirement denotes a requirement that was either not completed at all or just partially completed after the relevant MRC.
  • Each 13-week column has black markings at the top to denote underway periods.
  • Rescheduled MRS is indicated by the O-with-arrow on the schedule mean.

What are the two scheduling techniques for preventive maintenance?

Fixed PMs and floating PMs are two different scheduling techniques for preventive maintenance. Tracking assets and determining when they require inspection, maintenance, calibration, or replacement can be done using either method.

What are the strategies of preventive maintenance scheduling?

These two PM scheduling techniques enable maintenance facilities to precisely identify maintenance triggers, properly maintain assets and effectively utilize maintenance resources. As a result, facilities experience less downtime and improve asset performance for longer.

Learn more about Preventive maintenance: brainly.com/question/14970029

#SPJ4

8 0
9 months ago
Suppose a company owns a warehouse that costs $500,000 and depreciates at $10,000 per year. If the interest rate is 5%, what is
netineya [11]

Answer: $35,000

Explanation:

Implicit rental price = Interest payment + Depreciation

Interest payment = 5% * 500,000

= $25,000

Implicit rental price is therefore:

= 25,000 + 10,000

= $35,000

4 0
3 years ago
The time value of a call option is I) the difference between the option's price and the value it would have if it were expiring
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

I) The difference between the option's price and the value it would have if it were expiring immediately

Explanation:

Time value in options trading simply refers to the part of an option's premium (cost or price) which is attributed to the amount of the time remaining until expiration.

An addition of the option's time value and intrinsic value equals the total premium of an option.

Therefore, we can mathematically state that:

Time Value = Option Premuim(Price) - Intrinsic Value.

The Option Premuim is an amount of money known as the price or cost.

In an exchange for the right granted by the option, an option buyer pays for the premium to an option seller.

Generally, it is seen that the more time that remains until the expiration, the greater the time value of the option. This happens as a result of investors willing to pay a higher premium for more time since the longer time taken to execute contract will be profitable due to a favorable move in the underlying asset.

Also, the lesser time remaining on an option will result in lesser willingness of investors to pay because the probability for profitability is slim.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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