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WITCHER [35]
3 years ago
7

How is 7.7 x 1.4 = 10.78

Mathematics
2 answers:
stellarik [79]3 years ago
8 0
Do 77 times 14

770+308=1,078

Divide 1,078 by 100
=10.78
baherus [9]3 years ago
8 0
It is. if you use a calculator it comes out perfectly. if you round, 8 times 1 is 8, which is close to 10.78. 
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Nonamiya [84]
Hello!

You cannot make a triangle with two right angles

The answer is right angles

Hope this helps!
3 0
3 years ago
Combine like-terms of 6x-2x-2=-3x+4(x+7)
Leya [2.2K]
3x-2 = 3x+4x+28x

3x-2 = 7x + 28
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(x-1)(x+2)=5(x-1) divided by x-1
anyanavicka [17]
Assuming that your question is (x-1)(x+2) = [5(x-1)]/x-1

On the right side, the x-1's will cancel out, leaving you with (x-1)(x+2) = 5

expand the left side, giving you x^2 + x -2 = 5
which goes to x^2 +x -7 = 0
the possible values for x are 2.93 and -3.93. I don't think this was your question, so I'll do the other possible question that you might have been asking.

(x-1)(x+2) = 5(x-1)

divide by x-1 on both sides, leaving you with x+2=5
x+2=5
x=5-3
x=3
5 0
3 years ago
ILL GIVE U BRANLIEST
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

1. 0.6p

Step-by-step explanation: Well its quite obvious since its 40%

7 0
2 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
Mama L [17]

Answer:

(a)\ P(x = 0) = 0.2725

(b)\ P(x \ge 1) =0.7275

(c)\ P(x \le 2) = 0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

n = 8 --- 8 friends

p = 15\% --- proportion that one-time fling

This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

P(X = x) = ^nC_x* p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling

P(x = 0) = ^8C_0* (15\%)^0 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-0}

P(x = 0) = 1* 1 * (1 - 0.15)^{8}

P(x = 0) = 0.85^8

P(x = 0) = 0.2725

Solving (b): P(x \ge 1)

To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

P(x = 0) + P(x \ge 1) =1

Rewrite as:

P(x \ge 1) =1 - P(x = 0)

P(x \ge 1) =1 - 0.2725

P(x \ge 1) =0.7275

Solving (c): P(x\le 2)--- Not more than 2 has one time fling

This is calculated as:

P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)

We have:

P(x = 0) = 0.2725

P(x = 1) = ^8C_1* (15\%)^1 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-1}

P(x = 1) = 8* (0.15) * (1 - 0.15)^7

P(x = 1) = 0.3847

P(x = 2) = ^8C_2* (15\%)^2 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-2}

P(x = 2) = 28* (0.15)^2 * (1-0.15)^6

P(x = 2) = 0.2376

So:

P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)

P(x \le 2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376

P(x \le 2) = 0.8948

4 0
3 years ago
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