Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

10

A new cruise ship line has just launched 3 new ships: the Pacific Paradise, the Caribbean Paradise, and the Mediterranean Par

adise. The Caribbean Paradise has 1111 more deluxe staterooms than the Pacific Paradise. The Mediterranean Paradise has 1515 fewer deluxe staterooms than three timesthree times the number of deluxe staterooms on the Pacific Paradise. Find the number of deluxe staterooms for each of the ships if the total number of deluxe staterooms for the three ships is 576576.

1 answer:

Elenna [48]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Pacific Paradise deluxe state rooms=116

Caribbean Paradise deluxe state rooms = 127

Mediterranean Paradise deluxe state rooms = 333

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi, the numbers are doubled, the correct values are:

<em>Caribbean Paradise has 11 more deluxe staterooms than the Pacific Paradise. </em>

<em>Mediterranean Paradise has 15 fewer deluxe staterooms than three times the number of deluxe staterooms on the Pacific Paradise. </em>

<em>Total number of deluxe staterooms for the three ships is 576. </em>

So, to solve we have to write 3 equations.

C =11 +P

M = P3-15

C+M+P =576

Where:

<em>C: number of Caribbean Paradise deluxe state rooms </em>
<em>M: number of Mediterranean Paradise deluxe state rooms </em>
<em>P: number of Pacific Paradise deluxe state rooms </em>

Replacing values in the total ships equation:

(11 +P) + (P3-15)+P =576

Solving for P:

11 -15 +P+P+3P =576

-4 +5P =576

5P =576+4

5P =580

P = 580/5

P=116

Replacing P in each ship's equation

C = 11 +P= 11 +(116) =127

M =3P -15 = 3 (116)-15 = 333

You might be interested in

Convert the following degree measure to radian measure 30 degrees

insens350 [35]

Step-by-step explanation:

given 30°

converting into radian measure

= 30 * π / 180

= π / 6

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Need help I dont understand hep please

Travka [436]

The formulas
are on the picture

5 0

3 years ago

PLZ HELP ON SCALE FACTOR

docker41 [41]

Your answer would be C-64.

Hope this helps.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A plane flew 360km in 3 hrs when flying with the wind.With no change in the wind,the return trip took 4 hrs.Find the speed of th

morpeh [17]

Speed of the plane: 250 mph
Speed of the wind: 50 mph
Explanation:
Let p = the speed of the plane
and w = the speed of the wind
It takes the plane 3 hours to go 600 miles when against the headwind and 2 hours to go 600 miles with the headwind. So we set up a system of equations.
600
m
i
3
h
r
=
p
−
w
600
m
i
2
h
r
=
p
+
w
Solving for the left sides we get:
200mph = p - w
300mph = p + w
Now solve for one variable in either equation. I'll solve for x in the first equation:
200mph = p - w
Add w to both sides:
p = 200mph + w
Now we can substitute the x that we found in the first equation into the second equation so we can solve for w:
300mph = (200mph + w) + w
Combine like terms:
300mph = 200mph + 2w
Subtract 200mph on both sides:
100mph = 2w
Divide by 2:
50mph = w
So the speed of the wind is 50mph.
Now plug the value we just found back in to either equation to find the speed of the plane, I'll plug it into the first equation:
200mph = p - 50mph
Add 50mph on both sides:
250mph = p
So the speed of the plane in still air is 250mph.

6 0

3 years ago

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$

therefore, for this questions we have:

$\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%$

4 0

3 years ago