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2 years ago

Explain how a set of numbers can have a greatest common factor greater than 1

Mathematics

1 answer:

g100num [7]2 years ago

5 0

The set of number can all be related to each other. They may all have more factors that are greater than 1.

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Plz help Plz help, The figure below is a net for a triangular prism. Side a = 18 feet, side b = 9 feet, side c = 22 feet, side d

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

295

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

2 years ago

How much would you need to deposit in an account now in order to have $5000 in the account in 10 years? Assume the account earns

Blababa [14]

Answer:

$12500

Step-by-step explanation:

use si formula

SI=ptr/100

si=5000

t=10

r=4

6 0

3 years ago

The midpoint of \overline{\text{AB}} AB is M(0, -3)M(0,−3). If the coordinates of AA are (2, -5)(2,−5), what are the coordinates

ICE Princess25 [194]

Using the mid-point concept, it is found that the coordinates of B are (-2, -1).

The mid-point of two points is the <u>mean of the coordinates of each point</u>.

In this problem:

The points are: A(2, -5) and B(x,y).

The mid-point is (0, -3).

Applying the concept for both the x and y-coordinates, we have that:

$\frac{x + 2}{2} = 0$

$x + 2 = 0$

$x = -2$

$\frac{-5 + y}{2} = -3$

$-5 + y = -6$

$y = -1$

The coordinates of B are (-2, -1).

To learn more about the mid-point concept, you can take a look at brainly.com/question/10956693

5 0

2 years ago

A prticular type of tennis racket comes in a midsize versionand an oversize version. sixty percent of all customers at acertain

svetlana [45]

Answer:

a) P(x≥6)=0.633

b) P(4≤x≤8)=0.8989 (one standard deviation from the mean).

c) P(x≤7)=0.8328

Step-by-step explanation:

a) We can model this a binomial experiment. The probability of success p is the proportion of customers that prefer the oversize version (p=0.60).

The number of trials is n=10, as they select 10 randomly customers.

We have to calculate the probability that at least 6 out of 10 prefer the oversize version.

This can be calculated using the binomial expression:

$P(x\geq6)=\sum_{k=6}^{10}P(k)=P(6)+P(7)+P(8)+P(9)+P(10)\\\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\geq6)=0.2508+0.215+0.1209+0.0403+0.006=0.633$

b) We first have to calculate the standard deviation from the mean of the binomial distribution. This is expressed as:

$\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{10*0.6*0.4}=\sqrt{2.4}=1.55$

The mean of this distribution is:

$\mu=np=10*0.6=6$

As this is a discrete distribution, we have to use integer values for the random variable. We will approximate both values for the bound of the interval.

$LL=\mu-\sigma=6-1.55=4.45\approx4\\\\UL=\mu+\sigma=6+1.55=7.55\approx8$

The probability of having between 4 and 8 customers choosing the oversize version is:

$P(4\leq x\leq 8)=\sum_{k=4}^8P(k)=P(4)+P(5)+P(6)+P(7)+P(8)\\\\\\P(x=4) = \binom{10}{4} p^{4}q^{6}=210*0.1296*0.0041=0.1115\\\\P(x=5) = \binom{10}{5} p^{5}q^{5}=252*0.0778*0.0102=0.2007\\\\P(x=6) = \binom{10}{6} p^{6}q^{4}=210*0.0467*0.0256=0.2508\\\\P(x=7) = \binom{10}{7} p^{7}q^{3}=120*0.028*0.064=0.215\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\\\P(4\leq x\leq 8)=0.1115+0.2007+0.2508+0.215+0.1209=0.8989$

c. The probability that all of the next ten customers who want this racket can get the version they want from current stock means that at most 7 customers pick the oversize version.

Then, we have to calculate P(x≤7). We will, for simplicity, calculate this probability substracting P(x>7) from 1.

$P(x\leq7)=1-\sum_{k=8}^{10}P(k)=1-(P(8)+P(9)+P(10))\\\\\\P(x=8) = \binom{10}{8} p^{8}q^{2}=45*0.0168*0.16=0.1209\\\\P(x=9) = \binom{10}{9} p^{9}q^{1}=10*0.0101*0.4=0.0403\\\\P(x=10) = \binom{10}{10} p^{10}q^{0}=1*0.006*1=0.006\\\\\\P(x\leq 7)=1-(0.1209+0.0403+0.006)=1-0.1672=0.8328$

7 0

3 years ago

I need help!!! ASAP!!!! !!!!!

GalinKa [24]

Answer:

Volume= 729cm^3

Height= 9cm^2

Area of Base= 81cm^2

Volume=450m^3

Height= 3m^2

Area of Base=150m^2

Volume= 480 cm^2

Area of base=75cm^2

Height= 8cm^2

Volume =120in^3

Area of Base=20in^2

Height= 6in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume = (length) Times (Width) Times (Height)

Area os base = (Length) Times (width)

3 0

2 years ago