1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
pshichka [43]
3 years ago
15

A thermos bottle (Dewar vessel) has an evacuated space between its inner and outer walls to diminish the rate of transfer of the

rmal energy to or from the bottle’s contents. For good insulation, the mean free path of the residual gas (air; average molecular mass 5 29) should be at least 10 times the distance between the inner and outer walls, which is about 1.0 cm. What should be the maximum residual gas pressure in the evacuated space if T 5 300 K? Take an average diameter of d 5 3.1 × 10210 m for the molecules in the air.
Chemistry
1 answer:
choli [55]3 years ago
6 0

There are quite a bunch of typo errors in the question; here is the correct question below:

A thermos bottle (Dewar vessel) has an evacuated space between its inner and outer walls to diminish the rate of transfer of thermal energy to or from the bottle’s contents. For good insulation, the mean free path of the residual gas (air; average molecular mass = 29) should be at least 10 times the distance between the inner and outer walls, which is about 1.0 cm. What should be the maximum residual gas pressure in the evacuated space if T = 300 K? Take an average diameter of d = 3.1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m for the molecules in the air.

Answer:

9.57 × 10⁻⁷ atm

Explanation:

The mean free path ( λ ) can be illustrated by the equation:

λ =   \frac{1}{\sqrt{2} \pi d{^2}N/V }     ----------  (1)

N/V = \frac{N_AP}{RT}                      ------------- (2)

From the above relation, we can deduce that;

P=  \frac{RT}{\sqrt{2}\pi d{^2}N{_A}λ }     -------------(3)

let I=  λ

From the above equations;

d= diameter of the atom

{N_A} = avogadro's constant

P= pressure

R= universal rate constant which is given by 0.08206 L atm mol⁻¹ k⁻¹

T= temperature

From the question, we are given that the mean free path of the residual air molecules ( d = 3.1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m) is equal to 10cm = 0.1m

Therefore, we can determine the pressure using equation (3)

i.e

P=  \frac{RT}{\sqrt{2}\pi d{^2}N{_A}λ }

=  \frac{(8.314J{K^-^1)(300K)}}{\sqrt{2}(3.14)(3.1*10^{-10}m)^2(6.022*10^{23}mol^{-1})(0.1m) }

=97.06 × 10⁻³ Pa   ×   \frac{1atm}{1.01325*10^5Pa}

=9.57 ×  10⁻⁷  atm

Therefore, the maximum residual gas pressure in the calculated space is; 9.57 ×  10⁻⁷  atm

You might be interested in
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 how many unpaired electrons are in the atom represented by the electron configuration above?
Sedbober [7]
It's a combination of factors:
Less electrons paired in the same orbital
More electrons with parallel spins in separate orbitals
Pertinent valence orbitals NOT close enough in energy for electron pairing to be stabilized enough by large orbital size
DISCLAIMER: Long answer, but it's a complicated issue, so... :)
A lot of people want to say that it's because a "half-filled subshell" increases stability, which is a reason, but not necessarily the only reason. However, for chromium, it's the significant reason.
It's also worth mentioning that these reasons are after-the-fact; chromium doesn't know the reasons we come up with; the reasons just have to be, well, reasonable.
The reasons I can think of are:
Minimization of coulombic repulsion energy
Maximization of exchange energy
Lack of significant reduction of pairing energy overall in comparison to an atom with larger occupied orbitals
COULOMBIC REPULSION ENERGY
Coulombic repulsion energy is the increased energy due to opposite-spin electron pairing, in a context where there are only two electrons of nearly-degenerate energies.
So, for example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is higher in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier on us, we can crudely "measure" the repulsion energy with the symbol
Π
c
. We'd just say that for every electron pair in the same orbital, it adds one
Π
c
unit of destabilization.
When you have something like this with parallel electron spins...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
It becomes important to incorporate the exchange energy.
EXCHANGE ENERGY
Exchange energy is the reduction in energy due to the number of parallel-spin electron pairs in different orbitals.
It's a quantum mechanical argument where the parallel-spin electrons can exchange with each other due to their indistinguishability (you can't tell for sure if it's electron 1 that's in orbital 1, or electron 2 that's in orbital 1, etc), reducing the energy of the configuration.
For example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is lower in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier for us, a crude way to "measure" exchange energy is to say that it's equal to
Π
e
for each pair that can exchange.
So for the first configuration above, it would be stabilized by
Π
e
(
1
↔
2
), but the second configuration would have a
0
Π
e
stabilization (opposite spins; can't exchange).
PAIRING ENERGY
Pairing energy is just the combination of both the repulsion and exchange energy. We call it
Π
, so:
Π
=
Π
c
+
Π
e

Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Basically, the pairing energy is:
higher when repulsion energy is high (i.e. many electrons paired), meaning pairing is unfavorable
lower when exchange energy is high (i.e. many electrons parallel and unpaired), meaning pairing is favorable
So, when it comes to putting it together for chromium... (
4
s
and
3
d
orbitals)
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
compared to
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
is more stable.
For simplicity, if we assume the
4
s
and
3
d
electrons aren't close enough in energy to be considered "nearly-degenerate":
The first configuration has
Π
=
10
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
1
↔
5
,
2
↔
3
,

2
↔
4
,
2
↔
5
,
3
↔
4
,
3
↔
5
,
4
↔
5
)
The second configuration has
Π
=
Π
c
+
6
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
2
↔
3
,
2
↔
4
,
3
↔
4
)
Technically, they are about
3.29 eV
apart (Appendix B.9), which means it takes about
3.29 V
to transfer a single electron from the
3
d
up to the
4
s
.
We could also say that since the
3
d
orbitals are lower in energy, transferring one electron to a lower-energy orbital is helpful anyways from a less quantitative perspective.
COMPLICATIONS DUE TO ORBITAL SIZE
Note that for example,
W
has a configuration of
[
X
e
]
5
d
4
6
s
2
, which seems to contradict the reasoning we had for
Cr
, since the pairing occurred in the higher-energy orbital.
But, we should also recognize that
5
d
orbitals are larger than
3
d
orbitals, which means the electron density can be more spread out for
W
than for
Cr
, thus reducing the pairing energy
Π
.
That is,
Π
W
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen (by mass). calculate the empirical formula.
Eva8 [605]
C:H:O = 40/12 : 6,7/1 : 53,3/16 = 3,33 : 6,7 : 3,33 ≈ 1 : 2 : 1

CH₂O
3 0
3 years ago
would you expect potassium to have a high electronegativity or a low electronegativity? explain your answer
GalinKa [24]

A low electronegativity

Explanation:

Potassium is a metal that is expected to have a very low electronegativity value.

Electronegativity is the relative tendency by which an atom attracts valence electrons in a chemical bond.

Potassium is an element in the first group on the periodic table.

The common trend is that electronegativity increases from left to right and decreases down a group.

  • Potassium as metal will prefer to lose electrons rather than attracting because that will make it achieve the octet configuration that will ensure its stability.
  • This is why it will have low electronegativity.

Learn more:

Electronegativity brainly.com/question/11932624

#learnwithBrainly

4 0
3 years ago
Julie finds a snail on the sidewalk and wants to know whether or not the snail moves throughout the day. She places a
AURORKA [14]
Acting as a reference point for detecting motion
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A gas containing 80% CH4 and 20% He is sent through a quart/ diffusion tube (see Figure P8.8) to recover the helium, Twenty perc
elena55 [62]

For a gas containing 80% CH4 and 20% He is sent through a quart diffusion tube, the composition is mathematically given as

%He=12.5%

%CH4=87.5%

<h3>What is the composition of the waste gas if 100 kg moles of gas are processed per minute?</h3>

Generally, the equation for the Material balance  is mathematically given as

F=R+W

Therefore

100=0.20*1000+W

W=80kmol/min

In conclusion, waste gas compose

2.0/100*100=50/100*20+%*80

Hence

%He=12.5%

%CH4=87.5%

Read more about Chemical reaction

brainly.com/question/16416932

3 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • Remember the three roadmaps and how to use them.
    13·1 answer
  • Describe the process that ice on Mount Everest goes through when being heated from 10 degrees Fahrenheit to 305 degrees Kelvin.
    10·1 answer
  • What is the total number of neutrons in an atom of 0-18?
    7·2 answers
  • What are some chemical properties of a rock?
    12·1 answer
  • Which description best characterization the motion of particles in a solid
    9·2 answers
  • Each turn of the citric acid cycle generates one ATP and ___ additional energy-rich molecules: __________. View Available Hint(s
    10·1 answer
  • To multiply food with the help of a simple machine​
    15·1 answer
  • A gas is held at 120.4 kPa and 333K. When the temperature is decreased to
    15·1 answer
  • does anyone know the three answers Question 1 which element is in group 5 period 2?, question 3 which element is in group 6 peri
    12·2 answers
  • Questions &amp; Conclusions:
    8·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!