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torisob [31]
3 years ago
10

Find the minimum kinetic energy in MeV necessary for an α particle to touch a 39 19 K nucleus that is initially at rest, assumin

g only Coulomb forces are present. Assume that the α particle has a radius of 2.0 fm, and the potassium nucleus of 3.7 fm, and take into account the masses of both particles.

Physics
1 answer:
SIZIF [17.4K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

KE = 9.6MeV

Explanation:

Given the relationships we understand that,

q_1 = 19e, q_2 = 2e

The Potential at point p, is given by the following formula

V_ {p} = \frac {Kq_1} {r}

According to the graphic designed, you have,

V_ {p} = \frac {Kq_1} {(r_1 + r_2)}

V_ {p} = \frac {(9 * 10 ^ 9) (19 * 1.6 * 10 ^ {- 15})} {(3.7 + 2) * 10 ^{- 15}}}

V_ {p} = 4.8 * 10 ^ 6V

The kinetic energy of the particle would be given by

KE = q_2 * V_ {p} = 2e * 4.8 * 10 ^ 6V

KE = 9.6MeV

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Answer:

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3 years ago
A car is traveling with 90km/hr and another car with 20m/s in opposite direction. Calculate the relative velocity.
Slav-nsk [51]
90 km/h is 25 m/s
the relative velocity when cars are traveling in opposite directions is the sum of the two
25+20= 45 m/s
5 0
3 years ago
A soccer field is viewed from above, while a ball is kicked eastward with an initial speed of 10.0 m/s. The ball experiences a c
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

the ball travelled approximately 60 m towards north before stopping

Explanation:

 Given the data in the question;

First course : a_{x} = 0.75 m/s², d_{x} = 20 m, u_{x} = 10 m/s

now, form the third equation of motion;

v² = u² + 2as

we substitute

v_{x}² = (10)² + (2 × 0.75 × 20)

v_{x}² = 100 + 30

v_{x}² = 130

v_{x} = √130

v_{x} = 11.4 m/s

for the Second Course:

u_{y} =  11.4 m/s,  a_{y} = -1.15 m/s²,  v_{y} = 0

Also, form the third equation of motion;

v² = u² + 2as

we substitute

0² = (11.4)² + (2 × (-1.15) ×  d_{y} )

0 = 129.96 - 2.3d_{y}

2.3d_{y}  = 129.96

d_{y} = 129.96 / 2.3

d_{y} = 56.5 m

so;

|d| = √( d_{x}² + d_{y}² )

we substitute

|d| = √( (20)² + (56.5)² )

|d| = √( 400 + 3192.25 )

|d| = √( 3592.25 )

|d| = 59.9 m ≈ 60 m

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7 0
2 years ago
. A huge pile of leaves was wrapped in a tarp in the middle of a lawn. The wrapped leaves weigh 580 newtons. The coefficient of
Rina8888 [55]

The force required is 319 N

Explanation:

The force of static friction is a force that acts an object on a surface, when this object is pushed by another force to put it in motion. The direction of the force of friction is opposite to the direction of the force of push, and its value increases as the force of push increases, up to a maximum value given by:

F_f = \mu W

where

\mu is the coefficient of friction

W is the weight of the object

Therefore, in order to put the object in motion, the force applied must be greater than this value.

For the pile of leaves in this problem, we have:

\mu = 0.55 (coefficient of friction)

W=580 N (weight of the leaves)

Substituting, we find:

F=(0.55)(580)=319 N

Learn more about force of friction:

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7 0
3 years ago
Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

1)

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

F=qvB sin \theta

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

\theta=65^{\circ} is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N

2)

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

3)

The right hand rule gives the direction of the  force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

4)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

r=\frac{mv}{qB}

where here we have:

m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg is the mass of the alpha particle

v=2155 m/s is the speed of the alpha particle

q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m

5)

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}

where here:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz

6)

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

7)

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

\Delta t is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if \Delta \Phi \neq 0, which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.

8)

The flux is calculated as

\Phi = BA sin \theta

where

B = 5.5 T is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=18^{\circ} is the angle between the  direction of the field and the plane of the loop

Here the loop is rectangular with lenght 15 cm and width 8 cm, so the area is

A=(0.15 m)(0.08 m)=0.012 m^2

So the flux is

\Phi = (5.5)(0.012)(sin 18^{\circ})=0.021 Wb

See the last 7 answers in the attached document.

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5 0
3 years ago
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