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3 years ago

Width = (b - a)/n = (8 - 0)/4 = 2

Mathematics

2 answers:

Nookie1986 [14]3 years ago

7 0

Yes, I'm getting C also!

Since it's asking for the left-endpoint Riemann Sum, you will only be using the top left point as the height for each of your four boxes, making -1, -2.5, -1.5, and -0.5 your heights. The bases are all the same length of 2. You don't include f(8) because you're not using right-endpoints, and that would also add another 5th box that isn't included in the 0 to 8 range.

alexgriva [62]3 years ago

3 0

I agree as well. The Riemann Sum diagram will look something like what you see in the attached images. I used GeoGebra to create the graph.

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Look at this set of 8 numbers:33769234 how would the range change if the number 6 replaced the number 7 in the set

klio [65]

Put the numbers in order

2,3,3,3,4,6,7,9.....the range is the largest number minus the smallest number
so as it is, the range is (9 - 2) = 7

if u replaced the 7 with a 6...
2,3,3,3,4,6,6,9...the range is STILL (9 - 2) = 7

3 0

2 years ago

Which expressions are equivalent to 10 over 10 3/4?

worty [1.4K]

Answer:

There are no choices, but $\frac{10}{10.75}$ can be changes in the following ways: multiplying the numerator and the denominator by the same amount, or dividing the numerator and denominator by the same amount.

Hope it helps <3

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A grid model with 100 squares. 73 squares are shaded. What percent of the model is shaded? What is the equivalent ratio? What is

viva [34]

Answer:

73%

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you'll divide the total squares by 100 to get how much is one percent. Then, you divide the shaded squares by the value of 1%. And you'll get how many percents are shaded.

For equivalent decimal, you divide the number by 100.

Then for equivalent decimal, you get the percent and 100.

$p =100/100=1\\73/1=73\\=0.73\\=\frac{73}{100}$

5 0

2 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

2 years ago

8(x-a) = 2(2a - x). Solve for. X

Mariulka [41]

Hey! Your answer would be x = 6a/5

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers