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Margaret [11]
3 years ago
8

In year 2, Rossman Corp, changed its inventory method from FIFO to the weighted average method. The change resulted in a decreas

e in beginning inventory for year 2 of $10,000. What were the income statement effects of this change?
Earnings per share for year 1 decreased
Business
1 answer:
Mila [183]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The reason is that the opening inventory value of year 2 is the closing amount of the year 1. Its similar to the closing cash amount left in till at the end of year 1 is the opening amount at the year 2. So the opening inventory of year 2 is closing inventory of year 1. This means the closing inventory of year 1 has decreased by $10,000.

As we know that:

Cost of goods sold = Op. Inventory + Purchases - Cl. Inventory

This means if the closing amount increases the cost of goods decreases and in the given scenario the closing inventory of year 1 has been decreased which means that the cost of goods sold has increased which will decrease the profit. And if the profit decreases then:

Earning per share = Profit after tax (Decreased) / Number of share (Same)

As the profit has decreased the earning per share will also decrease.

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The Great Depression changed attitudes toward the labor movement.
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3 years ago
Howorth Dental Products is a London-based producer of a patented anti-microbial dental floss. All raw material is introduced at
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

Choice A is the correct answer

Explanation:

Howorth Dental Products

Cost of Production Report

Equivalent Units             Materials           Conversion Costs

Finished Goods             383000             383000

Ending WIP                    19000                6650 ( 19000* 35%)

Total Equivalent Units   402,000           389650        

Costs                                  Material           D.LAbor            FOH

Preceding Department    46,100            25,000             25000

Added                                85,800          98,300               98,700

Total Costs                       131,900            123,300            123,700

Material Costs Per Equivalent Unit = 131,900/ 402,000= 0.328

Direct LAbor Costs Per Equivalent Unit = 123,300/ 389,650=0.316

FOH Costs Per Equivalent Unit = 123,700/ 389,650=0.317

Total Cost per Equivalent unit = 0.328 + 0.316+0.317= 0.961≅ 0.962 (rounding would give a difference)

Costs Transferred to Finished Goods = 0.962* 383,000= $368,446

Costs OF Ending work in Process = 0.328 * 19,000 + 0.316* 6650 + 0.317 * 6650

Costs of Ending WIP= 6232 +2108.5+ 2101.4= 10,441.9

Total Cost Allocation= 368,446 + 10,441.9=  378,887.9

Equivalent units of direct material            402,000

Equivalent units of direct labor               389,650

Equivalent units of overhead              389,650

Costs per equivalent unit                  $0.962

Transferred to Finished Goods           $368,446

Total Ending Work in Process           $10,449

Total Cost Allocation       $378,895

There's a  minute difference in the WIP ending Inventory Costs  ( 10449 - 10441.9 = 7.1)and Total Costs ($378,895-378,887.9= 7.1) which is only due to rounding off. If you round off you will get the exact figures as given in the option.

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. More of Project A's cash flows occur in the later years. b. We must have inform
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Explanation:

When a project has its cashflows occurring in later years, the NPV will be less because the discount rate would have a greater period to discount it in as opposed to cashflows that occur more recently which would receive less discounting from the discount rate.

As a result of Project A having more distant cashflows, the discount rate discounted its cash flows more which is why higher rates led to its NPV being zero because those higher rates got to discount it over a longer period.

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Answer: no

Explanation:

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