<em>S</em><em>t</em><em>e</em><em>p</em><em>-</em><em>b</em><em>y</em><em>-</em><em>s</em><em>t</em><em>e</em><em>p</em><em> </em><em>e</em><em>xplanation</em><em>:</em>
<em>Since</em><em> </em><em>-3a</em><em> </em><em>can</em><em> </em><em>be</em><em> </em><em>said</em><em> </em><em>to</em><em> </em><em>have</em><em> </em><em>a</em><em> </em><em>power</em><em> </em><em>of</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>,</em><em> </em><em>we</em><em> </em><em>add</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>powers</em><em> </em><em>together</em><em> </em><em>and</em><em> </em><em>multiply</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>coefficients</em>
-9a³
Answer:
So then we have that Morten Andersen scored on average 97.45 points per year in his career.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming the following table on the figure attached.
We see that the career points for Morten Andersen was 2437. That include all the points over alll the years the he played in the NFL.
Since the total years played by Morten Andersen was 25 we can write the following equation:
Where 
represent the rate of points average per year.
If we solve for r from the last equation we can divide both sides of the equation and we got:
So then we have that Morten Andersen scored on average 97.45 points per year in his career.
Answer:
{y| y is a real number}
Step-by-step explanation:
The range is all the y's that an equation can produce or all the y's on a graph of the function.
This graph has every and any real y (because it keeps going forever, even off the screen or paper) It's a little hard to see, bc we just see it going left and right mostly, but it is also slightly going up (to the left) and down (to the right)
Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
