Answer:
8.4
Step-by-step explanation:
8 is a whole njmber, so it stays the same.
2/5 is equivalent to .4, so you put that at the end.
Your answer is 8.4 Hope this helps!
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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21 I think cause you use pemdas
Answer:
2−0.5z
Step-by-step explanation:
boom shacka laka so I've had this question before and i was just like whatever so i got it wrong and then i got the answer in the answer key :)
