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aleksandrvk [35]
3 years ago
5

th core of a star is the size of our sun with mass 2 times as great as the sun and is rotating at a frequency of 1 rev evru 100

days. If it were to undergo gravitational collapse to a neutron star of radius 10 kn what would its rtation frequency be
Physics
1 answer:
Rufina [12.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

3522.7 rad/s

Explanation:

From the law of conservation of angular momentum,

I₁ω₁ = I₂ω₂

I₁, ω₁ and I₂, ω₂ are the rotational inertia and angular speed of the sun and neutron star respectively.

ω₂ = I₁ω₁/I₂     I₁ = ²/₅M₁R₁² and I₂ = ²/₅M₂R₂² where M₁,M₂ and R₁,R₂ are the masses and radii of star and neutron star respectively.

ω₂ = I₁ω₁/I₂ = ²/₅M₁R₁²ω₁÷²/₅M₂R₂² = (M₁/M₂)(R₁/R₂)²ω₁

M₁ = M₂, R₁ = radius of sun = 6.96 10⁵ km and R₂ = 10 km, ω₁ = 1 rev/100days = 2π/(100 × 24 × 60 × 60 s) = 7.272 × 10⁻⁷ rad/s

ω₂ = (M₁/M₂)(R₁/R₂)²ω₁ = 1 × ( 6.96 10⁵ km/10 km)² × 7.272 × 10⁻⁷ rad/s

     = 3522.7 rad/s

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Answer:

hello your question is incomplete attached below is the complete question

answer : The moment of inertial felt by someone ( J ) is greater that the moment of inertia felt by the motor  i.e. J > Jm

Explanation:

Gear ratio G > 1

a) Determine the moment of inertia felt by the motor

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3 years ago
3. A penguin waddles 8 m uphill before sliding back down to its friends in 2 seconds. If the penguin ends where it started, what
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The velocity of penguin as he ends where he started was 0 m/s.

<h3>What is displacement?</h3>

Displacement is the length of straight line joining the initial and final position of the body.

Given is a penguin who waddled 8 m uphill before sliding back down to its friends in 2 seconds.

We know that the velocity is the rate of change of displacement with respect to time. Mathematically -

v = dx/dt

dx = v dt

∫dx = ∫v dt

Δx = vΔt

v = Δx/Δt

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The peak magnetic field of the electromagnetic wave in the red part of the visible spectrum is 9.67 x 10⁻¹⁰ T.

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The relationship between electric and magnetic field at a given peak electric field is given as;

c = (E₀) / (B₀)

where;

  • c is speed of light
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  • B₀ is the peak magnetic field

B₀ = E₀ / c

B₀ = (2.9) / (3 x 10⁹)

B₀ = 9.67 x 10⁻¹⁰ T

Thus, the peak magnetic field of the electromagnetic wave in the red part of the visible spectrum is 9.67 x 10⁻¹⁰ T.

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Calculate the lowest energy (in ev) for an electron in an infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
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The lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

To find the answer, we have to know more about the infinite well.

<h3>What is the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well?</h3>
  • It is given that, the infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
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  • Thus, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is,

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Thus, we can conclude that, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

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Answer:

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