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2 years ago

Which describes the relationship between the lines y=2x - 5 and y=2x +2?

1 answer:

3 0

The lines have the same slope and different y-intercepts which makes them parallel to eachother.

In the equation, y= mx +b, M stands for the slope and B stands for the y-intercept. The equations both have a slope of 2, but their y-intercepts are not the same.

Hope this helps! :)

You might be interested in

If h(x)=(fog)(x) and h(x) = sqrt x+5, find g(x) if f(x) = sqrtx+2

Katen [24]

Answer: The value of g(x) is x+3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

$h(x)=f\circ g(x)$

Here,

$h(x)=\sqrt{x+5}\\\\and\\\\f(x)=\sqrt{x+2}$

We need to find the value of g(x):

$f(x)=\sqrt{x+2}\\\\f(g(x))=\sqrt{g(x)+2}\\\\h(x)=\sqrt{g(x)+2}\\\\\sqrt{x+5}=\sqrt{g(x)+2}\\\\x+5=g(x)+2\\\\g(x)=x+5-2=x+3$

Hence, the value of g(x) is x+3.

3 0

3 years ago

Milly has a equal number of 20p coins and 50p coins . The value of her 20p coins is £2.80 . Work out the total value of her 20p

Zinaida [17]

Answer:

£9.80

Step-by-step explanation:

The calculation of the total value is given below:

Provided that that

The value of 20p coins is £2.80

So 1p = £2.80 ÷ 20

= £0.14

For 50p it would be

= £0.14 × 50

= £7

Now the total value is

= £2.80 + £7

= £9.80

3 0

2 years ago

plz i need help with this its due tmrw!! (also my other most recent question is #6 of this and it would be nice for answers for

kipiarov [429]

7. You have $367.50 after two years.

Start by converting 2.5% into a decimal (divide by 100) and multiplying by 350 to find the rate of interest per year.

350(0.025) = 8.75

Since it's for two years, multiply by two.

8.75 x 2 = 17.5.

Add it on to he original, and we have

350 + 17.5 = 367. 5, or $367.50 when converted back to money.

8. The annual interest rate is 2.4%

find the interest rate per year:

120/2.5 = 48 dollars per year. this is the interest amount, we want to find the interest rate. To do this, find what % of 2000 that 48 is equal to.

Set up a system of equations and cross multiply.

$\frac{48}{2000} = \frac{x}{100}$

2000x = 48(100) > 2000x = 4800

2000/2000x = 4800/2000 > x = 2.4

So, the interest rate is 2.4%.

9. the interest paid is $300 after six months, and $600 after a year.

Find the interest rate, similar to problem 7.

3000 x 0.2 = 600. This means the interest paid is $600 a year. In six months, the total will be half, or $300.

10. four years.

Find interest rate.

200(0.035) = $7/year

Remember that value. Subtract needed from current.

228 - 200 = $28.

So, we have an interest rate of $7 a year and we need $28. Normally, we'd solve using an expression, but in this case we can use simple multiplication. Knowing that 7 x 4 = 28, We can decide that it will take four years.

5 0

2 years ago

What is the scale of a map if Chapter Reference 1 cm on a map represents 100 km

Katarina [22]

Answer:

1:10,000,000

Step-by-step explanation:

To find, 1 km = 100,000 cm. So just multiply by that.

Hey, are you doing Russian math?

FYI I do that to

6 0

3 years ago

A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.

Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

$p(m) = 0.52$ (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

$p(f) = 0.48$ (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over 2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

$p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)$

And substituting, we find

$p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27$

So, 27%.

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

$p(ff)$

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

$p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)$