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Korvikt [17]
2 years ago
13

The allowance for doubtful accounts, which appears as a deduction from accounts receivable on a balance sheet and which is based

on an estimate of bad debts, is an application of the
Business
1 answer:
Reika [66]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer is: application of matching principle and contra-asset

Explanation:

The allowance for doubtful accounts is a management estimate of bad debts (amount owed by the customers that is deemed uncollectible). In order to demonstrate the recoverable amount of the accounts receivable, it is usually applied as a reduction in the asset (accounts receivable) by applying contra asset (that is, a way of netting the two accounts).

The estimate of bad debt is in conformity with the matching principle of accounting. The principle states that the revenue generated in a particular accounting period must be matched against the expense for that particular period. In this instance, the the bad debt expense is the expense.

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What would bill fall under, he applied and acquired for a new credit card and uses it regularly?
lidiya [134]

If  he applied and acquired for a new credit card and uses it regularly he will fall under: Voluntary.

<h3>What is credit card?</h3>

Credit card can be defined as the card that enables the card holder to carryout transactions such as purchases online in which the holder is expected to payback the amount used for the purchases.

If a obtain a new credit card which he use often or frequently, bill will tend to fall under voluntary because he voluntary applied for the credit card without being comply to do so.

Therefore bill will fall under voluntary.

Learn more about credit card here:brainly.com/question/8432538

#SPJ12

4 0
1 year ago
Bad Debts account has a credit balance of $8,000 before the adjusting entry for bad debts expense. After analyzing the accounts
White raven [17]

Answer:

$14,300

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that the​ management of the company estimated that the amount in the uncollectible accounts will be the amount of $14,300 which means that the amount of $14,300 will be the balance of the Allowance for Bad Debts that should be reported on the company balance​ sheet.

5 0
3 years ago
A firm's cost of equity is 22%. Its before-tax cost of debt is 13% and its marginal tax rate is 21%. The firm's capital structur
alisha [4.7K]

Answer:

WACC= 17.95%

Explanation:

Weighted average cost of capital is the average cost of all of the long-term types of finance used by a company weighted according to the that amount of finance used in relation to the total pool of fund.

It is calculated using the formula below:

WACC = (We×Ke)  +  (Wd×Kd)

Ke-cost of equity- 22%

We- equity weight- 100% - 45% = 55%

Kd-After tax cost of debt-10.3%

Wd- 45%

After tax cost of debt = Before tax ×× (1- tax rate)

After tax cost of debt = 13%× (1-0.21) = 10.3%

Cost of equity = 22%

WACC =(0.55× 22%) + (0.45× 13%)=17.95%

WACC= 17.95%

4 0
3 years ago
Claire is on her way to her job at a call center where she was planning on spending three hours. She can drop in and work any ho
denis23 [38]

Answer:

It should be greater than $36

Explanation:

The opportunity cost of working is the amount of money sacrificed or could have earned if the individual was not working. In this case, Claire has decided to go with her friend which means that the opportunity cost of not working is less than the benefits receives from going out. Because she is not working it means that the opportunity cost of working is more than 36 dollars, which is the income she could have earned in 3 hours.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose the production of cotton causes substantial environmental damage because the pesticides used by cotton farmers often mak
Kipish [7]

Answer: C. inefficiently low; inefficiently high

Explanation:

If the cotton farmers are not made to pay for the damage that their pesticides cost then they will maintain production at a relatively high level because their input costs will be relatively low. As a result of this high level of production, the price of the goods will be relatively low as well. The point at which both market equilibrium quantity and price are at in this scenario are considered inefficient because they are not taking into account, the true cost of production being the effects of the pesticides being used.

However, if they are made to pay for this negative externality that they are the cause of, it will increase their production cost and force them to reduce production to keep these costs low. As they reduce production, the market price will increase as supply is less.

5 0
3 years ago
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