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Korolek [52]
3 years ago
7

Will mark as brainliest if correct!!!!

Physics
1 answer:
Alex787 [66]3 years ago
4 0

Because light travels more quickly in D. glass than in diamond

Explanation:

Refraction is a phenomenon of light waves that occurs when a light way crosses the boundary between two different mediums. When this happens, the wave changes its direction and also its speed. In particular, there is an equation (called Snell's law) that descrives the direction of the refracted ray relative to the incident ray:

n_1 sin \theta_1 = n_2 sin \theta_2

where

n_1, n_2 are the index of refraction of medium 1 and 2, respectively

\theta_1 is the angle of incidence (the angle between the incident ray and the normal to the boundary between the two mediums)

\theta_2 is the angle of refraction (the angle between the refraction ray and the normal to the boundary between the two mediums)

The equation can also be written as

\frac{sin \theta_2}{sin \theta_1}=\frac{n_1}{n_2} (1)

The index of refraction of a medium is equal to

n=\frac{c}{v}

where

c is the speed of light in a vacuum

v is the speed of light in the medium

Using this, we can rewrite (1) as

sin \theta_2 = \frac{n_1}{n_2}sin \theta_1 = \frac{v_2}{v_1} sin \theta_1

where v_2 is the speed of light in the 2nd medium and v_1 the speed of light in the 1st medium.

Here we are comparing two situations:

1) Light passing from air to glass

2) Light passing from air to diamond

We are said that light is refracted by a greater amount when it passes from air to diamond: this means that in situation 2), the value of sin \theta_2 is smaller than in situation 1) (keep in mind that the angle is measured with respect to the normal, so a larger refraction means a smaller angle, since the refracted ray bends towards the normal). And therefore, this means that the ratio \frac{v_2}{v_1} is smaller for case 2) rather than for case 1): since v_1 in both cases is the same (the speed of light in air), this means that light travels more quickly in glass than in diamond, so option D.

In fact, by comparison:

Index of refraction in glass: 1.66

Index of refraction in diamond: 2.41

Which means that light travels faster in glass.

Learn more about refraction:

brainly.com/question/3183125

brainly.com/question/12370040

#LearnwithBrainly

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magine two carts, one with twice the mass of the other, that are going to have a head-on collision. In order for the two carts t
scoray [572]

Answer:

Twice as fast

Explanation:

Solution:-

- The mass of less massive cart = m

- The mass of Massive cart = 2m

- The velocity of less massive cart = u

- The velocity of massive cart = v

- We will consider the system of two carts to be isolated and there is no external applied force on the system. This conditions validates the conservation of linear momentum to be applied on the isolated system.

- Each cart with its respective velocity are directed at each other. And meet up with head on collision and comes to rest immediately after the collision.

- The conservation of linear momentum states that the momentum of the system before ( P_i ) and after the collision ( P_f ) remains the same.

                             P_i = P_f

- Since the carts comes to a stop after collision then the linear momentum after the collision ( P_f = 0 ). Therefore, we have:

                             P_i = P_f = 0

- The linear momentum of a particle ( cart ) is the product of its mass and velocity as follows:

                             m*u - 2*m*v = 0

Where,

                 ( u ) and ( v ) are opposing velocity vectors in 1-dimension.

- Evaluate the velcoity ( u ) of the less massive cart in terms of the speed ( v ) of more massive cart as follows:

                          m*u = 2*m*v

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Answer: The velocity of less massive cart must be twice the speed of more massive cart for the system conditions to hold true i.e ( they both come to a stop after collision ).

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8-14 A Cu-30% Zn alloy tensile bar has a strain-hardening coefficient of 0.50. The bar, which has an initial diameter of 1 cm an
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Answer:

The true stress at true strain 0.05cm/cm is 80MPa

Explanation:

Given that

the strength coefficient is K

true strain is ε

strain hardening exponent is n

initial diameter of bar is d = 1cm, (10mm)

tensile force is F

engineering stress(S) = 120

the engineering stress(S) = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(d^2) }

To find force (F) =

                    120 = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(100^{2} )}

                     F = 120 * (π/4) * (100)

                     F = 9425N

Calculate the true strain  (ε) = In (l₀ / l₁)

where

l₀ =  initial length of the metallic bar = 3cm

l₁ = final length of metallic bar = 3.5cm

ε = In (3.5 / 3)

  = In 1.1667

  = 0.154cm/cm

Calculate the true stress (σ) at fracture point

          = \frac{F}{\frac{\pi }{4}(d^2) }}

tensile force is F and final diameter of bar is d₁ (d in the eqn)

Substitute 9425 N for F and 0.926 cm (9.26mm) for d₁ (d in the eqn)

σ = \frac{9425}{\frac{\pi }{4}(9.26^2) }}

   = 140MPa

To find the strength coefficient (K) of the material bar

K = \frac{140}{\sqrt{0.154} }

K = \frac{140}{0.3925}

   = 356.75MPa

To calculate the true stress σ true strain of 0.05cm/cm

K  = 356.75MPa

σ = 356.75(0.05)^0^.^5

  = 356.75 ( 0.2236)

  = 80MPa

The true stress at true strain 0.05cm/cm is 80MPa

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