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MAVERICK [17]
3 years ago
13

What is the De Broglie wavelength of an electron under 150 V acceleration?

Engineering
2 answers:
SVEN [57.7K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer : The De Broglie wavelength of an electron is 1.0025\times 10^{-15}m

Explanation :

According to de-Broglie, the expression for wavelength is,

\lambda=\frac{h}{mv}

The formula used for kinetic energy is,

K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

The kinetic energy in terms of momentum will be,

p = m v

K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2=\frac{p^2}{2m}

or,

p=\sqrt{2mK.E}=mv

As we know that,

K.E=q\times V

where,

'q' is charge of electron (1.6\times 10^{-9}C) and 'V' is potential difference.

So, p=\sqrt{2m\times q\times V}=mv

The de Broglie wavelength of the electron will be:

\lambda=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2m\times q\times V}}   .........(1)

where,

h = Planck's constant = 6.626\times 10^{-34}Js=6.626\times 10^{-34}kgm^2/s

m = mass of electron = 9.1\times 10^{-31}kg

q = charge of electron = 1.6\times 10^{-9}C

V = potential difference = 150 V

Now put all the given values in equation 1, we get:

\lambda=\frac{6.626\times 10^{-34}kgm^2/s}{\sqrt{2\times (9.1\times 10^{-31}kg)\times (1.6\times 10^{-9}C)\times (150V)}}

conversion used : (1CV=1J=1kgm^2/s^2)

\lambda=1.0025\times 10^{-15}m

Therefore, the De Broglie wavelength of an electron is 1.0025\times 10^{-15}m

yanalaym [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

0.1 nm

Explanation

Potential deference of the electron is given as V =150 V

Mass of electron m=9.1\times 10^{-31}

Let the velocity of electron = v

Charge on the electron =1.6\times 10^{-19}C

plank's constant h =6.67\times 10^{-34}

According to energy conservation eV =\frac{1}{2}mv^2

v=\sqrt{\frac{2eV}{M}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 150}{9.1\times 10^{-31}}}=7.2627\times 10^{-6}m/sec

Now we know that De Broglie wavelength \lambda =\frac{h}{mv}=\frac{6.67\times 10^{-34}}{9.1\times 10^{-31}\times 7.2627\times10^6 }=0.100\times 10^{-9}m=0.1nm

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Since the applied stress required for failure due to crack propagation is still higher than 550 MPa, the ceramic is expected to fail due to overload and not because of the flaws

Explanation:

<u>Plane -Strain Fracture toughness is calculated as</u>

k_{IC}=fб\sqrt{\pi a}

F=geometry factor of the flaw

б=Stress applied

k_{IC}=Fracture toughness

a=Flaw size

<u>Given that </u>

Internal Flaw,a=0.001cm

Fracture Toughness k_{IC}=45MPa\sqrt{m}

Tensile Strength б=550 MPa

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3 years ago
H2O enters a conical nozzle, operates at a steady state, at 2 MPa, 300 oC, with the inlet velocity 30 m/s and the mass flow rate
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Answer:

The flow velocity at outlet is approximately 37.823 meters per second.

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Explanation:

A conical nozzle is a steady state device used to increase the velocity of a fluid at the expense of pressure. By First Law of Thermodynamics, we have the energy balance of the nozzle:

Energy Balance

\dot m \cdot \left[\left(h_{in}+\frac{v_{in}^{2}}{2} \right)-\left(h_{out}+\frac{v_{out}^{2}}{2} \right)\right]= 0 (1)

Where:

\dot m - Mass flow, in kilograms per second.

h_{in}, h_{out} - Specific enthalpies at inlet and outlet, in kilojoules per second.

v_{in}, v_{out} - Flow speed at inlet and outlet, in meters per second.

It is recommended to use water in the form of superheated steam to avoid the appearing of corrosion issues on the nozzle. From Property Charts of water we find the missing specific enthalpies:

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p = 2000\,kPa

T = 300\,^{\circ}C

h_{in} = 3024.2\,\frac{kJ}{kg}

\nu_{in} = 0.12551\,\frac{m^{3}}{kg}

Where \nu_{in} is the specific volume of water at inlet, in cubic meters per kilogram.  

Outlet (Superheated steam)

p = 600\,kPa

T = 160\,^{\circ}C

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If we know that \dot m = 50\,\frac{kJ}{kg}, h_{in} = 3024.2\,\frac{kJ}{kg}, h_{out} = 2758.9\,\frac{kJ}{kg} and v_{in} = 30\,\frac{m}{s}, then the flow speed at outlet is:

35765-25\cdot v_{out}^{2} = 0 (2)

v_{out} \approx 37.823\,\frac{m}{s}

The flow velocity at outlet is approximately 37.823 meters per second.

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\dot m = \frac{\pi \cdot v_{in}\cdot r_{in}^{2} }{\nu_{in}} (3)

If we know that \dot m = 50\,\frac{kJ}{kg}, v_{in} = 30\,\frac{m}{s} and \nu_{in} = 0.12551\,\frac{m^{3}}{kg}, then the inlet radius is:

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Where C_L is the lift force coefficient .

          ρ is the density of fluid.

         A is the area.

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Now from equation 1 and 2

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The circuits containing inductance has also a lower amount of resistance.

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There is a drop in the total voltage in resistance and inductance giving rise to the voltage applied in the coil when connected in a series.

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