Step-by-step explanation:
1. You already got the first step, where D is the midpoint of AC and AB is congruent to BC, since it's given.
2. AD will be congruent to DC, via the definition of a midpoint (a midpoint is the middle point of a line segment, and it splits the segment into two congruent parts)
3. BD is equal to BD, via reflexive property. ( It's a shared side between the two triangles)
4. that means that ΔADB ≅ΔCDB via SSS rule.
5. ∠ABD ≅∠CDB by CPCTC (corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent)
Hope this helps! :)
Answer:



Step-by-step explanation:
Given
--- 8 friends
--- proportion that one-time fling
This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling




Solving (b): 
To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

Rewrite as:



Solving (c):
--- Not more than 2 has one time fling
This is calculated as:

We have:







So:



Is that supposed to be x squared, or x times 2 in the beginning of the first one?
Answer:
65.54% (nearest hundredth)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:

P(X > 8600) = 1 - P(X ≤ 8600)
= 1 - 0.3445782584
= 0.6554217416
= 65.54%
50,779/590 is 90.7125 but rounded to 90.71