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3 years ago

What is the value 6=a/4+2

Mathematics

1 answer:

Tpy6a [65]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

a=16

Step-by-step explanation:

16/4+2 = 6

Thus the answer is 16

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There are 12 and in a class. What is the largestnumber of groups they can besplit into and have the samenumber of boys and girls

liq [111]

There will be 2 groups, and each group have 6girls and 9 boys.
12 ÷ 2 = 6
18 ÷ 2 = 9

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Solomon has read 1/3 of his book. He finishes the book by reading the same amount each night for 5 nights. A. What fraction of t

Tatiana [17]

A) 2/3 divided by 5/1
= 2/3 X 1/5
= 2/15 of the book

B) 14X5=70
1/3
2/3
3/3
70+35= 105 pages

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3 years ago

Plssss help me, I’ll mark y’all brainliest

My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

1 ray is intersecting point O

Step-by-step explanation:

A ray can be defined as a part of a line that has a fixed starting point but no end point.

AD and EC both go on forever but OB has one endpoint and goes on forever.

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3 years ago

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

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3 years ago

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WITCHER [35]

The answer is D, 14...

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3 years ago