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Oduvanchick [21]
3 years ago
6

A 41.0 g marble moving at 2.30 m/s strikes a 25.0 g marble at rest. What is the speed of each marble immediately after the colli

sion? Note that the collision is elastic and that it is a "head-on" collision so all motion is along a line.
Physics
1 answer:
Gre4nikov [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

speed of each marble after collision will be 1.728 m/sec

Explanation:

We have given mass of the marble m_1=41gram=0.041kg

Velocity of marble v_1=2.30m/sec

Its collides with other marble of mass 25 gram

So mass of other marble m_2=25gram=0.025kg

Second marble is at so v_2=0m/sec

We have to find the velocity of second marble

From momentum conservation we know that

m_1v_1+m_2v_2=(m_!+m_2)v, here v is common velocity of both marble after collision

So 0.041\times 2.30+0.025\times 0=(0.041+0.025)v

v = 1.428 m /sec

So speed of each marble after collision will be 1.728 m/sec

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Two loudspeakers are 1.60 m apart. A person stands 3.00 m from one speaker and 3.50 m from the other. (a) What is the lowest fre
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Answer:

Explanation:

Given

Distance between two loud speakers d=1.6\ m

Distance of person from one speaker x_1=3\ m

Distance of person from second speaker x_2=3.5\ m

Path difference between the waves is given by

x_2-x_1=(2m+1)\cdot \frac{\lambda }{2}

for destructive interference m=0 I.e.

x_2-x_1=\frac{\lambda }{2}

3.5-3=\frac{\lambda }{2}

\lambda =0.5\times 2

\lambda =1\ m

frequency is given by

f=\frac{v}{\lambda }

where v=velocity\ of\ sound\ (v=343\ m/s)

f=\frac{343}{1}=343\ Hz

For next frequency which will cause destructive interference is

i.e. m=1 and m=2

3.5-3=\frac{2\cdot 1+1}{2}\cdot \lambda

\lambda =\frac{1}{3}\ m

frequency corresponding to this is

f_2=\frac{343}{\frac{1}{3}}=1029\ Hz

for m=2

3.5-3=\frac{5}{2}\cdot \lambda

\lambda =\frac{1}{5}\ m

Frequency corresponding to this wavelength

f_3=\frac{343}{\frac{1}{5}}

f_3=1715\ Hz                        

8 0
4 years ago
The sport with the fastest moving ball is jai alai, where measured speeds can be 286 km/h. If a professional jai alai player fac
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

d= 794.4 cmExplanation:

Given that

Speed ,V= 286 km/h

=286\times \dfrac{1000}{3600}\ m/s

V=79.44 m/s

Given that time ,t= 100 ms

t= 0.1 s

We know that ( if acceleration is zero)

Distance = Speed x time

d= V t

Now by putting the values in the above equation

d = 79.44 x 0.1 m

d= 7.944 m

We know that 1 m = 100 cm

d= 794.4 cm

5 0
4 years ago
The phenomenon of water sticking to a surface, such as a window pane or
Korolek [52]

Answer:

Because of the Cohesion

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A skateboarder is skating back and forth on the halfpipe as seen below. As he skates his energy transforms from potential energy
egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

Friction and air resistance cause some of his kinetic energy to be “lost”. This makes him slow down.

Explanation:

The law of conservation of energy states that in absence of frictional forces, the mechanical energy of an object (given by the sum of its kinetic and potential energy) is conserved. In such a situation, the skateboarder would never stop his motion, because potential energy is continuously converted into kinetic energy and vice-versa, but the total energy remains the same so he would never stop.

In a real world, however, this is not true. In fact, in a real world some frictional force are present, in particular:

- friction: this force is due to the contact between the skateboard and the surface of the halfpipe, and its direction is always opposite to the motion of the skateboarder

- Air resistance: this force is due to the resistance opposed by the molecules of air that the skateboarder meets during his motion, and its direction is also opposite to the motion of the skateboarder

This two forces are said to be non-conservative forces, which means that they cause some of the mechanical energy of the skateboarder to be "lost", in the sense that it is dissipated as heat and it is no longer available for the skateboarder.

Therefore, the correct option is

Friction and air resistance cause some of his kinetic energy to be “lost”. This makes him slow down.

7 0
4 years ago
A tank is full of water. Find the work W required to pump the water out of the spout. (Use 9.8 m/s2 for g. Use 1000 kg/m3 as the
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

W = 1.06 MJ

Explanation:

- We will use differential calculus to solve this problem.

- Make a differential volume of water in the tank with thickness dx. We see as we traverse up or down the differential volume of water the side length is always constant, hence, its always 8.

- As for the width of the part w we see that it varies as we move up and down the differential element. We will draw a rectangle whose base axis is x and vertical axis is y. we will find the equation of the slant line that comes out to be y = 0.5*x. And the width spans towards both of the sides its going to be 2*y = x.

- Now develop and expression of Force required:

                                             F = p*V*g

                                             F = 1000*(2*0.5*x*8*dx)*g

                                             F = 78480*x*dx

- Now, the work done is given by:

                                             W = F.s

- Where, s is the distance from top of hose to the differential volume:

                                             s = (5 - x)

- We have the work as follows:

                                            dW = 78400*x*(5-x)dx

- Now integrate the following express from 0 to 3 till the tank is empty:

                                           W = 78400*(2.5*x^2 - (1/3)*x^3)

                                           W = 78400*(2.5*3^2 - (1/3)*3^3)

                                           W = 78400*13.5 = 1058400 J

 

5 0
3 years ago
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