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tekilochka [14]
3 years ago
7

Help please easy points

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alborosie3 years ago
5 0

Answer: F is the correct answer; 7 in.

Step-by-step explanation: I hope that this information helped you! :P

dimulka [17.4K]3 years ago
3 0
First let's figure out the angle of the green beans section - this would be 360 minus the total of the other two angles:
360 - (98 + 195)
= 360 - 293
= 67°

Now the formula for the circumference of a circle is circumference = πd, but since we have only a section of the circle we need to multiply this by the angle of our section/the sum of angles in a circle, ie.:
Circumference = 12π*(67/360)
= 67π/30
= 7 inch (to the nearest whole number)
Therefor F is the correct answer
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Answer:

V = 63π / 200  m^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

- The function y = f(x) is revolved around the x-axis over the interval [1,6] to form a spherical surface:

                                 y = √(42*x - x^2)

- The surface is coated with paint with uniform layer thickness t = 1.5 mm

Find:

The volume of paint needed

Solution:

- Let f be a non-negative function with a continuous first derivative on the interval [1,6]. The Area of surface generated when y = f(x) is revolved around x-axis over the interval [1,6] is:

                           S = 2*\pi \int\limits^a_b { [f(x)*\sqrt{1 + f'(x)^2} }] \, dx

- The derivative of the function f'(x) is as follows:

                            f'(x) = \frac{21-x}{\sqrt{42x-x^2} }

- The square of derivative of f(x) is:

                            f'(x)^2 = \frac{(21-x)^2}{42x-x^2 }

- Now use the surface area formula:

                           S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{42x-x^2} *\sqrt{1 + \frac{(21-x)^2}{42x-x^2 } }] \, dx\\\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{42x-x^2+(21-x)^2} }] \, dx\\\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{42x-x^2+441-42x+x^2} }] \, dx\\\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { [\sqrt{441} }] \, dx\\S = 2*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { 21} \, dx\\\\S = 42*\pi \int\limits^6_1 { dx} \,\\\\S = 42*\pi [ 6 - 1 ]\\\\S = 42*5*\pi \\\\S = 210\pi

- The Volume of the pain coating is:

                           V = S*t

                           V = 210*π*3/2000

                          V = 63π / 200 m^3

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