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4 years ago

35

Mathematics

1 answer:

Mars2501 [29]4 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hifddgrsdf hghdt hhdtseg jjffey

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Need ASAP! six less than twice a number is half the number plus twelve

kolezko [41]

I’m sorry but i don’t know what ur saying

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3 years ago

Murielle used synthetic division to divide a polynomial f(x) by x – 6, as shown:

NeX [460]

the value of f(6) is 3.

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4 years ago

5) 5 ft A) 38 ft C) 18 ft B) 15 D) 16 ft

Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

the answer is a

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

A ray of light with intensity lo falls vertically on the sur face of the sea and at ten meters deep its intensity is 10/3. Assum

seropon [69]

Answer:

intensity = $\frac{Io}{15}$

intensity = $\frac{Io}{30}$

depth = 333.33 m

Step-by-step explanation:

given data

deep = 10 m

intensity = Io

intensity = Io/3

to find out

intensity of light at 50 m and 100 m and 1/100 of initial intensity remain ?

solution

we know here that intensity is inversely proportional to deep so

intensity = k × $\frac{1}{Deep}$ .................1

here k is constant

so we have given 10 m deep so

$\frac{Io}{3}$ = $\frac{k}{10}$

so k = Io × $\frac{10}{3}$ ................2

so from equation 1 when 100 m deep and 50 m deep

intensity = k × $\frac{1}{Deep}$

intensity = Io × $\frac{10}{3}$ × $\frac{1}{50}$

intensity = $\frac{Io}{15}$

and

intensity = Io × $\frac{10}{3}$ × $\frac{1}{100}$

intensity = $\frac{Io}{30}$

and

at intensity Io/100

intensity = k × $\frac{1}{Deep}$

$\frac{Io}{100}$ = Io × $\frac{10}{3}$ × $\frac{1}{D}$

D = 333.33 m

so depth = 333.33 m

3 0

3 years ago

Question 5: prove that it’s =0

mamaluj [8]

Answer:

Proof in explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm going to attempt this by squeeze theorem.

We know that $\cos(\frac{2}{x})$ is a variable number between -1 and 1 (inclusive).

This means that $-1 \le \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le 1$ .

$x^4 \ge 0$ for all value $x$ . So if we multiply all sides of our inequality by this, it will not effect the direction of the inequalities.

$-x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4$

By squeeze theorem, if $-x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4$

and $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=L$ , then we can also conclude that $\im_{x \rightarrow} x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=L$ .

So we can actually evaluate the "if" limits pretty easily since both are continuous and exist at $x=0$ .

$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=0^4=0$

$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=-0^4=-0=0$ .

We can finally conclude that $\lim_{\rightarrow 0}x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=0$ by squeeze theorem.

Some people call this sandwich theorem.

6 0

3 years ago