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Naya [18.7K]
3 years ago
12

The number of molecules in a container is tripled and the kelvin temperature doubled. the volume remains unchanged. the new pres

sure will be how many times greater than the original pressure?
Physics
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]3 years ago
3 0
N2 = 3*n1
T2 = 2*T1
V1 = V2

(n2 * T2)/P2 = (n1 * T1)/P1
3 n1 * 2 T1 / P2 = n1 *T1 / P1
P2 = 6*P1

Since P2 is 6P1, it is 6 times greater than original pressure
You might be interested in
Why do radio waves have the lowest frequency of all the waves on the electromagnetic spectrum?
lara [203]

Explanation:

Electromagnetic waves are the waves which are created as the result of the electrical waves which are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation.

Electromagnetic spectrum is range of the frequencies and their respective wavelengths of the various type of the electromagnetic radiation.

In order of the increasing frequency and the photon energy and the decreasing wavelength the spectrum are:  

radio waves, microwaves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet radiation, X-rays and gamma rays.

The energy of the radio waves photons is the lowest of all the other waves in the electromagnetic spectrum.

Also, E={h\times \nu}

Where,  

h is Plank's constant having value 6.626\times 10^{-34}\ Js

Thus, energy is directly proportional to the frequency. The radio waves have the lowest frequency.

8 0
3 years ago
A car of 900 kg mass is moving at the velocity of 60 km/hr. It is brought into rest at 50 meter distance by applying a brake. No
kozerog [31]

Answer: -2502N

Explanation:

(V_2)^2=(V_1)^2+2ad

where;

V_2 = final velocity = 0

V_1 = initial velocity = 60 km/h = 16.67 m/s

a = acceleration

d = distance

First all of, because acceleration is given in m/s and not km/h, you need to convert 60km/h to m/s. Our conversion factors here are 1km = 1000m and 1h = 3600s

60km/h(\frac{1000m}{1km} )(\frac{1h}{3600s} )=16.67m/s

Solve for a;

(V_2)^2=(V_1)^2+2ad

Begin by subtracting (V_1)^2

(V_2)^2-(V_1)^2=2ad

Divide by 2d

\frac{(V_2)^2-(V_1)^2}{2d} =a

Now plug in your values:

a=\frac{(0)^2-(16.67 m/s)^2}{2(50m)}

a=\frac{0-277.89m^2/s^2}{100m}

a=-2.78m/s

If you're wondering why I calculated acceleration first is because in order to find force, we need 2 things: mass and acceleration.

F=ma

m = mass = 900kg

a = acceleration = -2.78m/s

F=(900kg)(-2.78m/s)\\F=-2502N

It's negative because the force has to be applied in the opposite direction that the car is moving.

8 0
2 years ago
What is the net force on the box?
omeli [17]

Answer:

The magnitude of the force net is an acting object multiplied by acceleration of the object

5 0
2 years ago
Most subcultures do not reject all of the values and practices of the larger society. Please select the best answer from the cho
iren [92.7K]
<h2><u>Answer:</u></h2>

The statement is True.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

A subculture is a gathering of individuals inside a culture that separates itself from the parent culture to which it has a place, frequently keeping up a portion of its establishing standards.

Subcultures build up their own standards and qualities with respect to social, political and sexual issues

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
two pendulums of lengths 100cm and 110.25cm start oscillating in phase. after how many oscillations will they again be in same p
goldfiish [28.3K]

Angular frequency of pendulum is given by

\omega = \sqrt{\frac{g}{l}}

for both pendulum we have

\omega_1 = \sqrt{\frac{9.81}{1.00}}

\omega_1 = 3.13 rad/s

For other pendulum

\omega_2 = \sqrt{\frac{9.81}{1.1025}}

\omega_2 = 2.98 rad/s

now we have relate angular frequency given as

[tex\omega_1 - \omega_2 = 3.13 - 2.98 = 0.15 rad/s[/tex]

now time taken to become in phase again is given as

t = \frac{2\pi}{\omega_1 - \omega_2}

t = \frac{2\pi}{0.15} = 41.88 s

now number of oscillations complete in above time

N = \frac{t}{\frac{2\pi}{\omega_1}}

N = \frac{41.88}{\frac{2\pi}{3.13}}

N = 21 oscillation


3 0
3 years ago
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