Answer: 1/1.8
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that 1 British pound can be exchanged for 180 cents of U.S. currency. To get the fraction that should be used to compute the indirect quotation of the exchange rate expressed in British pounds, we have to change the 180 cents to dollars first.
Since 100 cents = 1 dollar, 180 cents = 1.8 dollars. Therefore, fraction should be used to compute the indirect quotation of the exchange rate expressed in British pounds will be:
= 1/1.8
The type of employee that would most likely be satisfied and perform at a high level is motivated employee.
<h3>Who is
Hackman and Oldham?</h3>
Richard Hackman and Greg Oldham developed a model which itself motivates employees for the jobs.
The model focuses on the perspective that if the job is not monotonous, it can motivates the employee and would not feel discouraged to work.
Hence, the type of employee that would most likely be satisfied and perform at a high level is motivated employee.
Read more on about Hackman and Oldham here: brainly.com/question/13103980
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Answer:
In a production process new raw materials are considered_____ whereas the finished products are considered______
WIP (Work IN Process)
Units for Sale/ Raw Material for other Processes
Explanation:
WIP (Work IN Process)
The raw material in WIP is converted to useful material for other processes.
Work in process consists of materials labor factory overhead or collectively called as conversion costs. In Work in Process these are completed fully or to a certain limit and send to other processes for further work.
Units For sale
Finished goods are ready for sale and send to desired stores or ware houses for storage and further dispatching to retail stores.
Sometimes these units further need servicing or processes in other departments to make a complex unit . In these situations they are considered raw material for other processes.
Answer:
Explanation:
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of equipment, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value - fair value
where,
Book value = Equipment cost - accumulated depreciation
= $672,000 - $174,000
= $498,000
And, the fair value is $384,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $498,000 - $384,00
= $114,000
Now the journal entry would be
Loss on impairment A/c Dr $114,000
To Accumulated depreciation A/c $114,000
(Being the impairment loss is recorded)
Answer:
d. Choose Option B because it has a higher NPV
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
For Option A:
Investment = $10 million
Present Value of cash flows = Cash flow ÷ Discounting rate
= $2 ÷ 10%
= $20 million
Now
NPV = $20 - $10
= $10 million
We know that
IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero
So, 2 ÷ r - 10 = 0
r = 20%
For Option B:
Investment = $50 million
Present Value of cash flows = $6.5 ÷ 10% = $65 million
NPV = $65 - $50 = $15 million
we know that
IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero
So, 6.5÷ r -50 = 0
r = 13%
Based on NPV, Option B should be selected as it contains higher NPV as compared to option A.
However, Based on IRR, Option A should be chosen as it contains higher IRR and a higher IRR represent a higher profit percentage
