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Margaret [11]
3 years ago
5

3x + 4y =10 6x -2y = 40

Mathematics
1 answer:
AlexFokin [52]3 years ago
7 0

Y=-4/3X+10/3 and Y=3X-20

Hope that helped

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(WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST) Solve for x.
Oksanka [162]

Answer:

−2(−9x+5)−4x=2(x−5)−4

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

−2(−9x+5)−4x=2(x−5)−4

(−2)(−9x)+(−2)(5)+−4x=(2)(x)+(2)(−5)+−4(Distribute)

18x+−10+−4x=2x+−10+−4

(18x+−4x)+(−10)=(2x)+(−10+−4)(Combine Like Terms)

14x+−10=2x+−14

14x−10=2x−14

Step 2: Subtract 2x from both sides.

14x−10−2x=2x−14−2x

12x−10=−14

Step 3: Add 10 to both sides.

12x−10+10=−14+10

12x=−4

Step 4: Divide both sides by 12.

12x

12

=

−4

12

x= -1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Good luck! Hope this helps! <3

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
How much is 400lb converted to tons
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Box A has a volume of 12 cubic meters. Box B is similar to box A. To create Box B, Box A's dimensions were multiplied by five. W
postnew [5]
Volume of B is 125×12=1500
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 5 m in mm I would like to know please?
Mariana [72]

1 meter = 1000 mm

so then 5 meters is just 5 * 1000 = 5000 mm.

6 0
3 years ago
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