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3 years ago

8

Calculate the conductance of a conduit the cross-sectional area of which is 3.0 cm2 and the length of which is 9.0 cm, given tha

t its conductivity is 0.80 ohm-1cm-1.

2 answers:

FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: $0.266 ohm^{-1}$

Explanation: Specific conductance or conductivity is the conductance for unit volume of a solution.

$\kappa=C\times \frac{l}{a}$

where,

$\kappa$ =Specific conductance or Conductivity= $0.80ohm^{-1}cm^{-1}$

C = Conductance = ?

l = length= 9.0 cm

a = area = 3.0 $cm^2$

$\frac{length}{area}$ = cell constant = $\frac{9.0cm}{3.0cm^2}=3cm^{-1}$

$0.80ohm^{-1}cm^{-1}=C\times 3cm^{-1}$

$C=0.266 ohm^{-1}$

pshichka [43]3 years ago

6 0

For resistance we have R=ρ l/a
thus for conductance we have K=σ a/l
conductance,K=1/R
conductivity,σ =1/ρ

σ = .80 Ω-1 cm-1
l =9 cm
a = 3 cm²
K=.80 ×3/9
=0.26 Ω-1

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Elena L [17]

The maximum value of θ of such the ropes (with a maximum tension of 5,479 N) will be able to support the beam without snapping is:

$\theta =37.01^{\circ}$

We can apply the first Newton's law in x and y-direction.

If we do a free body diagram of the system we will have:

x-direction

All the forces acting in this direction are:

$T_{1}sin(\theta)-T_{2}sin(\theta)=0$ (1)

Where:

T(1) is the tension due to the rope 1
T(2) is the tension due to the rope 2

Here we just conclude that T(1) = T(2)

y-direction

The forces in this direction are:

$T_{1}cos(\theta)+T_{2}cos(\theta)-W=0$ (2)

Here W is the weight of the steel beam.

We equal it to zero because we need to find the maximum angle at which the ropes will be able to support the beam without snapping.

Knowing that T(1) = T(2) and W = mg, we have:

$T_{1}cos(\theta)+T_{1}cos(\theta)-m_{steel}g=0$

$2T_{1}cos(\theta)-m_{steel}g=0$

$2T_{1}cos(\theta)=m_{steel}g$

T(1) must be equal to 5479 N, so we have:

$cos(\theta)=\frac{m_{steel}g}{2T_{1}}$

$cos(\theta)=\frac{892*9.81}{2*5479}$

$cos(\theta)=\frac{892*9.81}{2*5479}$

$cos(\theta)=0.80$

Therefore, the maximum angle allowed is θ = 37.01°.

You can learn more about tension here:

brainly.com/question/12797227

I hope it helps you!

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Read 2 more answers

Problem One: A beam of red light (656 nm) enters from air into the side of a glass and then into water. wavelength, c. and speed

Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

Part a)

$f_w = f_g = 4.57 \times 10^{14} Hz$

Part b)

$\lambda_w = 492 nm$

$\lambda_g = 437.3 nm$

Part c)

$v_w = 2.25 \times 10^8 m/s$

$v_g = 2.0 \times 10^8 m/s$

Explanation:

Part a)

frequency of light will not change with change in medium but it will depend on the source only

so here frequency of light will remain same in both water and glass and it will be same as that in air

$f = \frac{v}{\lambda}$

$f = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{656 \times 10^{-9}}$

$f = 4.57 \times 10^{14} Hz$

Part b)

As we know that the refractive index of water is given as

$\mu_w = 4/3$

so the wavelength in the water medium is given as

$\lambda_w = \frac{\lambda}{\mu_w}$

$\lambda_w = \frac{656 nm}{4/3}$

$\lambda_w = 492 nm$

Similarly the refractive index of glass is given as

$\mu_w = 3/2$

so the wavelength in the glass medium is given as

$\lambda_g = \frac{\lambda}{\mu_g}$

$\lambda_g = \frac{656 nm}{3/2}$

$\lambda_g = 437.3 nm$

Part c)

Speed of the wave in water is given as

$v_w = \frac{c}{\mu_w}$

$v_w = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{4/3}$

$v_w = 2.25 \times 10^8 m/s$

Speed of the wave in glass is given as

$v_g = \frac{c}{\mu_g}$

$v_g = \frac{3 \times 10^8}{3/2}$

$v_g = 2 \times 10^8 m/s$

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