First you have to make the assumption that these are the only two outcomes. There is also the possibility of hitting the ball and getting out.
However, if we assume that these are the only two cases, we know that the probability is 58.3%. This is because it has been on base 7 times out of 12.
Answer:
1st pic) 17.8
2nd pic) 16.8
3rd pic) 9.1
4th pic) 13.5
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>1st pic:</u>
(write equation) Cos 27 (cos 27 = 0.89) = 
(new equation) 0. 89 = 
(multiply 20 on both sides) 0.89 x 20 =
x 20
(solve) 17.8 = x
<u>2nd pic:</u> 
(write equation) tan 40 (tan 40 = 0.84) = 
(new equation) 0.84 = 
(multiply 32 on both sides) 0.84 x 20 =
x 20
(solve) 16.8 = x
<u>3rd pic:</u> 
(write equation) cos 55 (cos 55 = 0.57) = 
(new equation) 0.57 = 
(multiply 16 on both sides) 0.57 x 16 =
x 16
(solve) 9.1 = x
<u>4th pic:</u> 
(write eqaution) tan 42 (tan 42 = 0.90) = 
(new equation) 0.90 = 
(multiply 15 on both sides) 0.90 x 15 =
x 15
(solve) 13.5 = x
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
the first one is correct
Answer:
Have you got the answer yet?
Step-by-step explanation:
. The series is divergent. To see this, first observe that the series ∑ 1/kn for n = 1 to ∞ is divergent for any integer k ≥ 2.
Now, if we pick a large integer for k, say k > 100, then for nearly all integers n it will be true that 1 > cos(n) > 1/k. Therefore, since ∑ 1/kn is divergent, ∑ cos(n)/n must also be divergent The *summation* is divergent, but the individual terms converge to the number 0.<span>by comparison test since cosn/n <= 1/n is convergent
and 1/n is divergent by harmonic series
so the series is conditionally converget </span>