Answer:
Results are below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Initial investment= $1,000
Annual interest rate= 6% = 0.06
Number of periods= n
<u>To calculate the future value after "n" periods, we need to use the following formula:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
<u>For example:</u>
n= 6 years
FV= 1,000*(1.06^6)
FV= $1,418.52
Answer:
The balance in the paid in capital in excess of par will be $478,950.
Explanation:
As 4,210 shares is retired and each shares carries a $5 Paid-in capital in excess of par ( Issued price - Par value = $8 - $3 = $5), the retirement of 4,210 shares will include the clear of 4,210 x 5 = $21,050 in Paid-in capital in excess of par.
The beginning balance of the Paid-in capital in excess of par account = (8 -3) x 100,000 = 300,000
=> The remaining balance of the Paid-in capital in excess of par account = 500,000 - 21,050 = $478,950.
So, the answer is $478,950.
It’s B, have a good day☀️
For a merchandising company, the cost of goods sold, direct materials, and commissions are <u>variable costs</u>.
<h3>What is a variable cost?</h3>
A variable cost is the cost element that remains constant per unit while the total changes. Other examples of variable costs include direct labor, variable selling and administrative expenses, including commissions and shipping costs.
Thus, for a merchandising company, the cost of goods sold, direct materials, and commissions are all examples of <u>variable costs</u>.
Learn more about variable costs here: brainly.com/question/5965421
Answer:
income summary 550 debit
retained earnings 550 credit
--to close income sumary against RE--
Explanation:
To complete the closing entries we should determinate the balance of the Income Summary account and then, transfer into Retained Earnings.
Income Summary
<u> Debit Credit </u>
2,450
<u> 3,000 </u>
Balance 550
We will debit income summary so his blanace ends in zero and credit retained earnings so net income is accumualted and added into equity to represent it in the balance sheet.