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Alex73 [517]
3 years ago
7

What is the net force required to accelerate a 16 kg box at a rate or 1.4 m/s^2

Physics
1 answer:
stich3 [128]3 years ago
8 0
You can use Newton's Second Law which states:
\sum \vec{F} = m\vec{a}

Plug in given information:
\sum \vec{F}=16(1.4) = 22.4N

This is closest to option b which is your answer.
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An athelete runs some distance before taking a long jump because : give answer
insens350 [35]
Hi Pupil Here's your answer ::



➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡

An Athelete run some distance before taking a long jump because by running the Athelete gives himself larger inertia of motion.


⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅


Hope this helps .....

3 0
3 years ago
A water wave approaches a wall with a small hole in it. The wave is blocked by the wall, except for the part that goes through t
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

diffraction

Explanation:

took da test

7 0
2 years ago
"a uniform thin rod of length 0.962 m is hung from a horizontal nail passing through a small hole in the rod located 0.048 m fro
exis [7]
<span>1.57 seconds. The rod hanging from the nail constructs a physical pendulum. The period of such a pendulum follows the formula T = 2*pi*sqrt(L/g) where T = time L = length of pendulum g = local gravitational acceleration So the problem becomes one of determining L. It's tempting to consider L to be the distance between the center of mass and the pivot, but that isn't the right value. The correct value is the distance between the pivot and the center of percussion. So let's determine what that is. We can treat the uniform thin rod as an uniform beam and for an uniform beam the distance between the center of mass and the center of percussion is expressed as b = L^2/(12A) where b = distance between center of mass and center of percussion L = length of beam A = distance between pivot and center of mass Since the rod is uniform, the CoM will be midway from either end, or 0.962 m / 2 = 0.481 m from the end. The pivot will therefore be 0.481 m - 0.048 m = 0.433 m from the CoM Now let's calculate the distance the CoP will be from the CoM: b = L^2/(12A) b = (0.962 m)^2/(12 * 0.433 m) b = (0.925444 m^2)/(5.196 m) b = 0.178107005 m With the distance between the CoM and CoP known, we can now calculate the effective length of the pendulum. So: 0.433 m + 0.178107005 m = 0.611107005 m And finally, with the effective length known, let's calculate the period. T = 2*pi*sqrt(L/g) T = 2*pi*sqrt((0.611107005 m)/(9.8 m/s^2)) T = 2*pi*sqrt(0.062357858 s^2) T = 2*pi*0.249715554 s T = 1.569009097 s Rounding to 3 significant figures gives 1.57 seconds. Let's check if this result is sane. Looking up "Seconds Pendulum", I get a length of 0.994 meters which is longer than the length of 0.611 meters calculated. But upon looking closer at the "Seconds Pendulum", you'll realize that it's period is actually 2 seconds, or 1 second per swing. So the length of the calculated pendulum is sane.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Moving waves can be described either as a function of time or as a function of
ser-zykov [4K]
<span>a. amplitude. is the answer</span>
7 0
3 years ago
How does refraction cause wave crests to move when the waves approach the shore? A. at right angles to the shore B. about 80 deg
Svet_ta [14]

Nearly Parallel to the shore, is the answer I'm pretty sure.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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