Answer:
Quadrant 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Sin = opp/hyp and opp is positive in quadrants 1 & 2.
Tan = opp/adj - we need one of these values to be positive and the other negative. adj is negative in quadrants 2 & 3.
Quadrant 2 is found in both of the scenarios that we need to occur.
<h3>
Answer: 1/2</h3>
The midsegment is always exactly half as long compared to the side it's parallel to.
Put another way, the longer side (4x+20) is twice long as the midsegment (3x).
Answer:
domain: (0, 5, -4, 9)
range: (-8, 3, 2)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's look at work rates per minute.
Together they can paint the wall in x minutes.
Working together, in 1 minute, they do 1/x of the job.
The student who paints the wall in 16 minutes does 1/16 of the job in 1 minute.
The student who paints the wall in 24 minutes does 1/24 of the job in 1 minute.
Together, they do 1/16 + 1/24 of the job in 1 minute, but from above, we see that together, they do 1/x of the job in 1 minute, so 1/16 + 1/24 must equal 1/x. That gives us our equation.
1/16 + 1/24 = 1/x
1/16 * 3/3 + 1/24 * 2/2 = 1/x
3/48 + 2/48 = 1/x
5/48 = 1/x
x = 48/5 = 9.6
Answer: It takes them 9.6 minutes, or about 10 minutes to do the job together.
Answer:
the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel = 0.1353
Step-by-step explanation:
GIven that:
A roll of steel is manufactured on a processing line. The anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll is two.
Let consider β to be the average value for defecting
So;
β = 2
Assuming Y to be the random variable which signifies the anticipated number of defects in a 10-foot segment of this roll.
Thus, y follows a poisson distribution as number of defect is infinite with the average value of β = 2
i.e
the probability mass function can be represented as follows:
where;
y = 0,1,2,3 ...
Hence, the probability of no defects in 10 feet of steel
y = 0
P(y =0) = 0.1353
