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Crank
3 years ago
14

Does a thicker core make an electromagnet stronger?

Physics
1 answer:
goldenfox [79]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

The core of an electromagnet serves to stabilize the magnetic field created by the wire. The thicker the core, the more metal there is to amplify the current. Therefore, a thicker core does make an electromagnet stronger. Hope this helps!

You might be interested in
Write a sentence or short paragraph that defines and explains an adaptation
alexdok [17]
Adaptation is when a living thing changes its behavior to survive in its surroundings.
3 0
3 years ago
A 60 year old person has a threshold of hearing of 95.0 dB for a sound with frequency f=10,000 Hz. By what factor must the inten
Nadusha1986 [10]

Answer:

The intensity increased by a factor of 158489

Explanation:

Given that,

Sound level = 95.0 dB

Sound level = 43.0 dB

Frequency = 10000 Hz

We need to calculate the ratio of sound intensity

Using formula of sound level

sound\ level =10 log\dfrac{I}{I_{0}}

Put the value into the formula

95.0=10\ log\dfrac{I_{1}}{I_{0}}...(I)

43.0=10\ log\dfrac{I_{2}}{I_{0}}.....(II)

Subtracting these equations

52.0=10\ log\dfrac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}

\log\dfrac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=5.2

Taking inverse log

\dfrac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=10^{5.2}

\dfrac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=158489

Hence, The intensity increased by a factor of 158489

4 0
2 years ago
We intend to observe two distant equal brightness stars whose angular separation is 50.0 × 10-7 rad. Assuming a mean wavelength
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

13.4cm

Explanation:

According to Rayleigh’s criterion the angular resolution to distinguish two objects is given by:

\theta=1.22\frac{\lambda}{b}

θ = 50.0*10^-7 rad

λ: wavelength of the light = 550nm

b = diameter of the objective

By doing b the subject of the formula and replacing the values of the angle and wavelength you obtain:

b=1.22\frac{\lambda}{\theta}=1.22\frac{550*10^{-9}m}{50.0*10^{-7}rad}=0.134m=13.4cm

hence, the smallest diameter objective lens is 13.4cm

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two airplanes leave an airport at the same time. The velocity of the first airplane is 750 m/h at a heading of 51.3°. The veloci
abruzzese [7]
Refer to the diagram shown below.

In 2.4 hours, the distance traveled by the first airplane heading a 51.3° at 750 mph is 
a = 750*2.4 = 1800 miles.

The second airplane travels
b = 620*2.4 = 1488 mile

The angle between the two airplanes is
163° - 51.3° = 111.7°

Let c =  the distance between the two airplanes after 2.4 hours.
From the Law of Cosines, obtain
c² = a² + b² - 2ab cos(111.7°)
    = 3.24 x 10⁶ + 2.2141 x 10⁶
c = 2335.41 miles

Answer: 2335.4 miles

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 210 g block is dropped onto a relaxed vertical spring that has a spring constant of k = 2.0 N/cm. The block becomes attached t
Yuliya22 [10]

Answer:

a) W_{g}=mdx = 0.21 kg *9.8\frac{m}{s^2} 0.10m=0.2058 J

b) W_{spring}= -\frac{1}{2} Kx^2 =-\frac{1}{2} 200 N/m (0.1m)^2=-1 J

c) V_i =\sqrt{2 \frac{W_g + W_{spring}}{0.21 kg}}}=\sqrt{2 \frac{(1-0.2058)}{0.21 kg}}}=2.75m/s

d)  d_1 =0.183m or 18.3 cm

Explanation:

For this case we have the following system with the forces on the figure attached.

We know that the spring compresses a total distance of x=0.10 m

Part a

The gravitational force is defined as mg so on this case the work donde by the gravity is:

W_{g}=mdx = 0.21 kg *9.8\frac{m}{s^2} 0.10m=0.2058 J

Part b

For this case first we can convert the spring constant to N/m like this:

2 \frac{N}{cm} \frac{100cm}{1m}=200 \frac{N}{m}

And the work donde by the spring on this case is given by:

W_{spring}= -\frac{1}{2} Kx^2 =-\frac{1}{2} 200 N/m (0.1m)^2=-1 J

Part c

We can assume that the initial velocity for the block is Vi and is at rest from the end of the movement. If we use balance of energy we got:

W_{g} +W_{spring} = K_{f} -K_{i}=0- \frac{1}{2} m v^2_i

And if we solve for the initial velocity we got:

V_i =\sqrt{2 \frac{W_g + W_{spring}}{0.21 kg}}}=\sqrt{2 \frac{(1-0.2058)}{0.21 kg}}}=2.75m/s

Part d

Let d1 represent the new maximum distance, in order to find it we know that :

-1/2mV^2_i = W_g + W_{spring}

And replacing we got:

-1/2mV^2_i =mg d_1 -1/2 k d^2_1

And we can put the terms like this:

\frac{1}{2} k d^2_1 -mg d_1 -1/2 m V^2_i =0

If we multiply all the equation by 2 we got:

k d^2_1 -2 mg d_1 -m V^2_i =0

Now we can replace the values and we got:

200N/m d^2_1 -0.21kg(9.8m/s^2)d_1 -0.21 kg(5.50 m/s)^2) =0

200 d^2_1 -2.058 d_1 -6.3525=0

And solving the quadratic equation we got that the solution for d_1 =0.183m or 18.3 cm because the negative solution not make sense.

5 0
2 years ago
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