Interference and diffraction are the phenomena that support only the wave theory of light. Options 2 and 3 are correct.
<h3 /><h3>What is the interference of waves?</h3>
The result of two or more wave trains flowing in opposite directions on a crossing or coinciding pathways. This phenomenon is known as the interference of waves.
The phenomenon of interference occurs when two wave pulses are traveling along a string toward each other.
The light wave hypothesis states that light behaves like a wave. Since light is an electromagnetic wave, it may be transmitted without a physical medium.
Light has magnetic and electric fields, much like electromagnetic waves do.
Transverse waves, such as those seen in light waves, oscillate in the same direction as the wave's path. A wave of light may experience interference as well as diffraction as a result of these properties.
All of the remaining options are the light phenomenon.
Hence, options 2 and 3 are correct.
To learn more about the interference of waves refer to the link;
brainly.com/question/16098226
#SPJ1
The final velocity is 
The distance traveled by the ball at time t is 
The maximum distance traveled by the object is 
The given parameters;
initial velocity of the ball, u = 20 m/s
acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s²
The final velocity can be calculate as;
The distance traveled by the ball at time t;
The maximum distance traveled by the object is calculated as;
Learn more here: brainly.com/question/16878713
Answer:
Low Potential energy and High Kinetic energy
Explanation:
Hope this helps and have a good day! Apologies if it's wrong.<3
Answer:
It has a mass of 40 kg.
Explanation:
Because Force = mass x Acceleration or F = m a, we could say that the mass is force/acceleration which in your case is 2,400/60 which equals 40 kg.
Answer:
As a pendulum moves toward the equilibrium position, velocity increases and acceleration decreases. As the pendulum moves away from the equilibrium position, velocity decreases and acceleration increases.
Explanation:
Using the law of conservation of energy, we know that Em1=Em2.
Em1 (at the highest point) = Eg + Ek, where Ek is 0
Em2 (at the equilibrium point) = Eg +Ek, where Eg is 0
This makes sense. At the highest point, the pendulum is at its maximum height. At this point, however, it stops moving, so its velocity is 0. At the equilibrium point, the pendulum is at its lowest height (i.e. h=0). At this point, however, its moving at its maximum velocity. This velocity is constant, which means that acceleration is 0.
