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kozerog [31]
3 years ago
13

PLEASE HELPPPP

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nookie1986 [14]3 years ago
8 0
The domain:
x\in(-\infty;\ 0]

The range:
y\in(-\infty;\ 0]

Answer:
<span>C. The range and domain of the graph are the same.</span>
dangina [55]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C. the range and domain of the graph are the same.

Step-by-step explanation:

A.   Is not possible. Here's why

Notice that when the range of a function is all real numbers greater than or equal to 0, then the graph would be above the "x" axis and this graph is below the "x" axis.

B. Is not possible. Here's why

The right side of the "x" axis is not part of the graph at all, therefore the domain can't be all real numbers.

C.  This is the right answer.

The graph is below the "x" axis and to the left of the "y" axis, therefore both the domain and the range of the graph are  (-\infty,0] .

D. Is not possible. Here's why

The right side of the "x" axis is not part of the  graph, therefore that can't be the answer.

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