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Kitty [74]
2 years ago
7

Manuel has pennies and nickels with a total value of $1.15. The number of nickels is 43 less than the number of pennies. How man

y pennies does Manuel have?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Veseljchak [2.6K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

45 Pennies

14 Nickels

Step-by-step explanation:

1.15 - .43 = .72

72 % 5 = 14.? - 14 nickels

.2 left - 2 pennies

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5th grade math. correct answer will be marked brainliest.
azamat

Answer:

3 1/3 is your answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Rewriting equation:

4 + 5/6 - 1 - 1/2

4 - 1 = 3

5/6 - 1/2 = ?

Find the LCD of 5/6 and 1/2 and rewrite to solve.

5/6 - 3/6 = 2/6

2/6 = 1/3

3 + 1/3 = 3 1/3

Whole number: 3

numerator: 1

denominator: 3

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose you pay a dollar to roll two dice. if you roll 5 or a 6 you Get your dollar back +2 more just like it the goal will be t
LiRa [457]

Answer:

(a)$67

(b)You are expected to win 56 Times

(c)You are expected to lose 44 Times

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample space for the event of rolling two dice is presented below

(1,1), (2,1), (3,1), (4,1), (5,1), (6,1)\\(1,2), (2,2), (3,2), (4,2), (5,2), (6,2)\\(1,3), (2,3), (3,3), (4,3), (5,3), (6,3)\\(1,4), (2,4), (3,4), (4,4), (5,4), (6,4)\\(1,5), (2,5), (3,5), (4,5), (5,5), (6,5)\\(1,6), (2,6), (3,6), (4,6), (5,6), (6,6)

Total number of outcomes =36

The event of rolling a 5 or a 6 are:

(5,1), (6,1)\\ (5,2), (6,2)\\( (5,3), (6,3)\\ (5,4), (6,4)\\(1,5), (2,5), (3,5), (4,5), (5,5), (6,5)\\(1,6), (2,6), (3,6), (4,6), (5,6), (6,6)

Number of outcomes =20

Therefore:

P(rolling a 5 or a 6)  =\dfrac{20}{36}

The probability distribution of this event is given as follows.

\left|\begin{array}{c|c|c}$Amount Won(x)&-\$1&\$2\\&\\P(x)&\dfrac{16}{36}&\dfrac{20}{36}\end{array}\right|

First, we determine the expected Value of this event.

Expected Value

=(-\$1\times \frac{16}{36})+ (\$2\times \frac{20}{36})\\=\$0.67

Therefore, if the game is played 100 times,

Expected Profit =$0.67 X 100 =$67

If you play the game 100 times, you can expect to win $67.

(b)

Probability of Winning  =\dfrac{20}{36}

If the game is played 100 times

Number of times expected to win

=\dfrac{20}{36} \times 100\\=56$ times

Therefore, number of times expected to loose

= 100-56

=44 times

8 0
3 years ago
Find the difference: 34.14 - 67.42
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

-33.28

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the probability of pulling out a red marble then a blue marble?
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Total marble = 8+5+4 = 19

n(Y) = 8, n(B) = 4 and n(R) = 5

Prob(R) = 5/17

Prob(B) = 4/16 {one marble is pulled out already}

Prob(R and B) = 5/17 × 4/16

= 5/17 × 1/4

= 5/68

5 0
2 years ago
What is a equivalent expression for 3y+y+4+y
kherson [118]

an equivalent expression is 5y+4

there is 3y which is y+y+y

so you have y+y+y+y+4+y

there are 5 y so it is 5y

then you have +4

5y+4

7 0
2 years ago
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