Answer:
1/12
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of getting a 5 is 1/6. The probability of getting tails is 1/2. Multiply 1/6 by 1/2 and you will get 1/12
40 diamonds x 50 point (each diamond) = 2000 points
Answer:
n squared + 3n + 1
Step-by-step explanation:
5,11,19,29
Firstly look at the difference between each number. The first difference is 6 then 8 then 10 etc. After that you look at your created sequence - 6,8,10 etc. The difference is 2 each time. Then applying rules, you have to do the constant difference divided by 2 to get a coefficient of n squared. So in this case it's n squared because 2/2 = 1 so you don't have to place a 1 in front of the n squared. After you create a sequence from the n squared. That would be 1,4,9 etc. Then you need to see how to get from the sequence: 1,4,9 etc to your original sequence: 5,11,19 etc. So if you calculate it you will get 4,7,10 because firstly 5-1 = 4 then 11-4 = 7 etc. The sequence 4,7,10 is a linear sequence so the constant difference is 3 each time. So to get a nth term of a linear sequence you will start off as 3n then you will substitute 1 then 2 then 3 into the 3n. Therefore that would be 3,6 etc. So if you take the first substituted term, that would be 3 as said before then you will have to see how to get from the 3 to 4 so that is just adding 1. So the nth term of this linear sequence is 3n + 1. Check if it works at the end. So the overall nth term of the quadratic sequence is n squared as said before + 3n + 1.
If I understand the drawing correctly than yes, because
6 9/12 + 6 9/12 = 12 and 18/12 = 13 and 6/12 or 13 and 1/2.
13 1/2 + 4 8/12 = 13 6/12 + 4 8/12 = 17 and 14/12 = 18 2/12 or 18 and 1/6.
1/3 wins and 2/3 losses
given 2 and 5 = 2/6 = 1/3
1, 3, 4, and 6 = 4/6 = 2/3
