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3 years ago

-25 Points-

Mathematics

2 answers:

ss7ja [257]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

1/36

Step-by-step explanation:

Each die has six sides, so there is always a 1/6 chance. The chances just continue to get slimmer as you go.

Ymorist [56]3 years ago

5 0

1/36 because each one of the choices on the red die has 6 options branched off of it. So you do 6 (number of possibilities in the red die) x 6 (number of possibilities per possibility on the red die). Since a red 6 and blue 6 is 1 specific combination, the answer is 1/36. Hope this helps!

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3 years ago

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mezya [45]

Step-by-step explanation:

in total we have 3+4 = 7 balls.

when we draw the first ball, the probability to draw a red ball is 3/7, and a blue ball 4/7.

when we draw the second ball, we have now only 6 balls in total.

the probabilty to draw a red back now depends also on the result of the first draw.

if the first ball was already red, then we have only a chance now of 2 out of 6.

if the first ball was blue, then we have now a chance of 3 out of 6.

so, the probably to draw at least 1 red ball in 2 draws is the probability of drawing one on the first draw plus the probability of drawing one on the second :

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the expected number of red balls in 2 draws is

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but not second and second but not first

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2 years ago

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Select 2 ratios that are equivalent to 4:18<br><br> Thanks so much for helping!!