Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we are given that f(x)=1, we just have to find what value of x gives 1 as the result.
From the graph, we can see that (0,1) gives 1 as a y-value. Thus, when x is 0, y is 1.
Therefore, f(0)=1.
So, our answer is B.
And we're done!
Answer:
Suppose we have a random number A.
The multiplicative inverse of A is a number X such that:
A*X = 1
When we work with real numbers, X = 1/A
Then:
A*(1/A) = A/A = 1
This means that (1/A) is the multiplicative inverse of A.
Where we need to have A ≠ 0, because we can not divide by 0.
Now we want to find the multiplicative inverse of the numbers:
2: Here the inverse is (1/2) = 0.5
1/5: Here the inverse is (1/(1/5)) = (5/1) = 5
-4: Herre the inverse is (1/(-4)) = -(1/4) = -0.25
-512 is the answer because 512 is a negative solution in Integers math
Answer:
90deg
Step-by-step explanation:
If the angles are supplementary, that means mA + mB = 180*
we know that
mA = (2x + 8)deg
mB = (2x + 8)deg = mA
mA + mB = 180deg
mB + mB = 2mB = 180deg
mB = 90deg
Note, that we did not need to compute x even, because the angles were the same.
21.25% because 85/400 = .2125 which is 21.25%
