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LiRa [457]
2 years ago
7

1. A 35-year-old woman has been very tired, with a low-grade fever and chills. She has a nonproductive cough and runs out of bre

ath easily. Results of a chest radiograph show patchy infiltrates. A Gram stain of sputum revealed many white blood cells but no bacteria. Empirical treatment for walking pneumonia was initiated. Results of a cold agglutinin assay were positive. Which of the following microbes is most likely the cause of this disease? a. Bordetella pertussis b. Chlamydophila pneumoniae c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Health
1 answer:
OLEGan [10]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: b. Chlamydophila pneumoniae

Explanation:

Chlamydophila pneumoniae is a species of Chlamydia. It is an obligate bacterium. It infects the humans and is responsible for the cause of disease pneumonia. This bacteria is undetected by gram staining. It is associated with the cause of symptoms like fever and shivering. It gives positive results for the cold agglutination test.

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