Answer:
Option B has a higher present value at time zero is correct
as shown below:
Option A future value at the end of three years = 2000*(1.06)^2+5000*(1.06)^1+5000*(1.06)^0= $12,547
Option B future value at the end of three years = 4000*(1.06)^2+4000*(1.06)^1+4000*(1.06)^0=$12,734
Option B has higher future value as determined above, so first option is wrong.
Option A present value at time zero = 2000/(1.06)^1+5000/(1.06)^2+5000/(1.06)^3= $10,535
Option B present value at time zero = 4000/(1.06)^1+4000/(1.06)^2+4000/(1.06)^3=$10,692
Option B has higher present value as determined above, so second option is correct.
Third option is wrong as Option B is not perpetuity as B has three years life.
Fourth option is wrong as Option A is not ANNUITY as A CASH FLOW amounts is not equal , it varies on annual basis.
Answer:
They do more intensive labor than manufacturing.
Explanation:
Answer:
Goodwill Impairment (Debit)
Goodwill (Credit)
Explanation:
In case goodwill is impaired, then the entry to record this impairment will be Goodwill Impairment Debit and Goodwill Credit.
By crediting the Goodwill, the account will be reduced. This shows that the business is currently worth less than is accounted for. The Goodwill account is reduced to identify this difference.
The Impairment loss is an expense and must be reflected in the income statement. Therefore, while we reduce Goodwill amount from balance sheet. We record the expense on the income statement, which would mean that the current year profit amount will be reduced.
Answer:
a. Controllable margin = Sales - Variable costs - Controllable fixed cost
=5,500,000 - 2,200,000 - 2,540,000
= $760000
b. Return on Investment (ROI) =
Controllable margin / Average Operating Assets * 100
= 760,000 / 4,000,000 * 100
=0.19 * 100
=19%
c. Residual income = Controllable margin - Minimum required return (4000000 * 16% = 640000)
=760,000 - 640,000
=$120,000