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3 years ago

A chemist is studying the effect of acid rain on the steel in bridges. why would she most likely use rate laws in this study?

1 answer:

7 0

The reaction between the acid rain and the metal comprising the bridge, in this case steel is an example of single replacement reaction which eats out the metal to produce other sorts of substance such as rusts and other deposits. She is most like to use the rate laws because this will allow her to identify up to what extent can the reaction proceed and the time it will take for all the metals to be eaten out.

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Forrester Company is considering buying new equipment that would increase monthly fixed costs from $396,000 to $684,000 and woul

Ber [7]

Answer:

50%

Explanation:

Contribution margin is used to determine the profitability of a product. it is price less variable cost

Contribution margin ratio = (price - variable costs) / price

variable cost = 80 - 20 = 60

price = 120

(120 - 60) / 120 = 50%

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3 years ago

LO 8.5Which of the following is a possible cause of an unfavorable labor rate variance?

riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

hiring higher-quality workers at a higher wage

Explanation:

Possible causes of unfavorable labor rate variances include:

An increase in pay for employees.

Working overtime hours paid at a premium above the basic rate.

Using direct labor employees who were more skilled and experienced than the ‘normal’ and who are paid more than the standard rate per hour (adverse rate variance).

Based on the above discussion, the answer is hiring higher-quality workers at a higher wage

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4 years ago

During the current year, Brewer Company acquired all of the outstanding common stock of miller Inc. paying $12,000,000 cash. The

Lesechka [4]

Answer:

See the explanation below:

Explanation:

The merged details are first sorted as follows:

Details Book Value ($) Fair Value ($)

Accounts receivable 1,800,000 1,625,000

Inventories 2,700,000 4,000,000

Property Plant and Equipment 9,000,000 11,625,000

Accounts payable 3,000,000 3,000,000

Bonds payable 4,500,000 4,125,000

The calculation will now be done using the fair value as follows:

Total fair value of assets = $1,625,000 + 4,000,000 + 11,625,000 = $17,250,000

Total fair value of liabilities = $3,000,000 + 4,125,000 = $7,125,000

Fair Value of Miller Inc. Equity = $17,250,000 - $7,125,000 = $10,125,000

Goodwill from the acquisition = $12,000,000 - $10,125,000 = $1,875,000

The journal entries will look as follows:

<u>Details Dr ($) Cr ($) </u>

Goodwill 1,875,000

Miller Inc. Equity acquired 10,125,000

Cash 12,000,000

<u>To record the acquisition Miller Inc. </u>

7 0

3 years ago

The total cost of ownership (TCO) is an estimate of the cost of an item that includes all the costs related to the procurement a

den301095 [7]

Answer: <u><em>The statement given is true</em></u> since the total cost cost ownership is an estimate of cost of an commodity that considers all cost accompanying to the procurement and utilization of the item. Some of these cost are: Depreciation costs , Fuel costs , Insurance , Financing , Repairs , Downtime costs and etc. The total cost of ownership does not include disposing costs.

5 0

3 years ago

Can I get the answer and explanation to attached question please?

lord [1]

The value of the holdings of Megahurtz International Car Rentals at year end is CA$176,923.08

The value of the holdings if the real went up against the dollar is $266, 667. 67.

<h3>How to find the value of the holdings?</h3>

The exchange rate before the real declined was:

= 270,000 / 200, 000

= 1.35 real per dollar

The new exchange rate after the Real declined was:

= 1.35 x 1.3

= 1.755 Real per dollar

The value of the holdings at year end in Real will therefore be:

= 270, 000 x 1.15

= 310, 500 Real

In Canadian dollar this is:

= 310, 500 / 1.755

= CA$176,923.08

The new exchange rate as a result of the Real increasing in value is:
= 1.35 x (1 - 16% increase in value)

= 1.134 Real per dollar

The value of the holdings at year end would therefore be:

= 270,000 x (1 + 12% earning)

= 302, 400 Reals

In Canadian Dollar this is:

= 302, 400 / 1.134

= CA$266, 666. 67

Find out more on the value of holdings at brainly.com/question/15352363

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7 0

1 year ago