Answer:
Yes. g⁻¹(x) = f(x).
Step-by-step explanation:
Let y = ∛x - 1.
Rearrange to solve for x:
y+1 = ∛x
(y+1)³ = x
Swap x and y:
(x+3)³ = y
g⁻¹(x) = (x+3)³ = f(x)
<span>Kendall's birthday money = Joshua's birthday money</span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
-22
we have
----> inequality 1
The solution of the inequality 1 is the shaded area below the solid red line
The solution is the region D and region C
-----> inequality 2
The solution of the inequality 2 is the shaded area above the solid blue line
The solution is the region B and region C
The solution of the system is the common area
so
The solution is the region C
see the attached figure
therefore
the answer is the option C
Region C